Department of Psychology
Choose the best answer to each of the following 100 questions. Questions are drawn from the text and lectures in roughly equal proportions, with the understanding that there is considerable overlap between the two sources. Usually, only one question is drawn from each major section of each chapter of the required readings; again, sometimes this question also draws on material discussed in class. Read the entire exam through before answering any questions: sometimes one question will help you answer another one.
Most questions can be correctly answered in one of two ways: (1) by fact-retrieval, meaning that you remember the answer from your reading of the text or listening to the lecture; or (2) inference, meaning that you can infer the answer from some general principle discussed in the text or lecture. If you cannot determine the correct answer by either of these methods, try to eliminate at least one option as clearly wrong: this maximizes the likelihood that you will get the correct answer by chance. Also, go with your intuitions: if you have actually done the assigned readings and attended the lectures, your "informed guesses" will likely be right more often than they are wrong.
a. the invention of the straitjacket.
b. the discovery of the causes of paresis.
c. major reforms in mental hospital practices.*
d. introducing tax laws for public support of asylums.
a. a pattern of signs and symptoms that usually go together.*
b. a form of disorganized thinking found in schizophrenia.
c. the key symptom identifying each disorder.
d. a mental disorder that causes physical damage.
a. Disturbances of thought; hallucinations
b. Hallucinations; ideas of reference
c. Delusions; hallucinations*
d. Ideas of reference; delusions
a. weakness, loss of appetite, and sleep disorders.*
b. disrupted attention and poor short-term memory.
c. social withdrawal, anxiety, and delusions of worthlessness.
d. agitation, anxiety, and cognitive impairment.
a. a vicious cycle*
b. the start of a psychosis
c. opponent processes
d. negative feedback
a. wanders away from home, but is amnesic for how he got there.*
b. shows inappropriate emotional responses, but cannot remember doing so.
c. acts aggressively towards others, but cannot remember having done so.
d. composes contrapuntal music in the style of Bach, but cannot remember doing so.
a. may be due to more permissive child-rearing, especially in the area of sexual behavior.
b. may be due to a general increase in medical sophistication in the lay population.
c. because chronic fatigue and somatoform pain disorder have replaced conversion disorder in modern society.
d. b and c only*
a. hostility manifested as anger, cynicism, and distrust.*
b. competitiveness and constant striving to be better than others.
c. the individual's inability to relax and enjoy his or her life.
d. none of the above
a. there is some indication that the chemical composition of the blood of antisocial personality types is different from that of normal individuals.
b. antisocial personalities seem to be more reactive to stress in terms of physiological measures such as the GSR, but are much less reactive in terms of behavioral indices of anxiety.
c. antisocial personalities appear to show less of a physiological response to stress, in terms of GSR, than do normals.*
d. both a and c
a. These drugs do not relieve anxiety or depression.
b. Powerful sedatives like phenobarbital have no effect on schizophrenic symptoms.
c. Patients actually report more, rather than less, energy and alertness when taking these drugs.
d. a and b only *
b. little or no change in mood.*
d. heightened levels of energy.
a. it may be unethical to give a placebo and withhold an accepted treatment.
b. because of characteristic side effects, it is sometimes easy to tell who has taken the medication and who has taken the placebo.
c. it is more useful to test the effectiveness of a new drug against the best alternative treatment, rather than against a placebo.
d. all of the above *
a. the conflict the patient had with her parents
b. the hidden sexual desires the patient has
c. unconscious conflict that the patient does not know exists *
d. a struggle between the id and the ego for control
a. The patient learns to face his fear regardless of how scared it makes him.
b. The patient conditions a state of relaxation to fear-evoking stimuli. *
c. The patient systematically overcomes a fear by coming in contact with it every day.
d. The patient learns a series of visual images that can be used during a fear-evoking situation.
a. classical conditioning.
b. operant conditioning. *
c. aversion techniques.
d. cognitive therapy.
a. It teaches the patient to relax her body at the onset of a panic attack.
b. It helps the patient achieve a more realistic interpretation of her bodily sensations. *
c. It teaches the patient how to use positive thinking and imagery to alleviate panic attacks.
d. It teaches the patient how to use biofeedback to control panic attacks.
a. echoing or restating what a client seemed to say or feel *
b. not being involved directly with a patient
c. giving advice only when directly asked for it by the patient
d. techniques that are not directed at any one specific goal
a. the use of a couch and free association.
b. the philosophy that life is meaningless.
c. optimistic faith in the individual's capacity for growth.
d. a belief in the importance of responsible, free choice. *
a. the individual patient gets much more attention.
b. the group provides on-the-spot practice in interpersonal skills. *
c. group therapists use a client-centered approach.
d. each patient learns that he is unique.
a. They can better understand the problem this way.
b. The therapist can act as a translator who helps each member better understand the other members. *
c. Family therapy is such a growing field that therapists can't see each member individually, even though this is better.
d. Coming as a group often puts the patients more at ease.
a. anxiety disorders are best treated using behavior therapies.
b. cognitive therapy is more effective than behavior therapy for panic disorder.
c. psychotherapy is of little use in bipolar disorders.
d. all of the above *
a. functional psychoses
c. personality disorders*
d. organic brain syndromes
a. psychological deficits in attention.*
b. maladaptive social learning.
c. delusional thought formation.
d. the moral model of mental illness.
a. diathesis factors cause acute episodes of psychopathology to occur.
b. high levels of environmental stress render the person vulnerable to mental illness.
c. diathesis factors are always biological in nature.
d. stress factors can be biological in nature.*
a. enhance systematic desensitization in cases of phobia.
b. enhance self-regulation of the autonomic nervous system.*
c. reduce levels of dopamine in cases of schizophrenia.
d. increase levels of serotonin in cases of depression.
a. genetic factors contribute only weakly to schizophrenic diathesis.
b. the shared family environment serves as a stress factor.
c. most stress factors are located in the nonshared environment.*
d. first-degree relatives show increased levels of dopamine compared to more distant relatives.
a. feelings and motives are less important than cognitions in determining behavior.
b. motives and cognitions are more important than emotions in determining behavior.
c. emotions and cognitions are conscious determinants of behavior, while motives operate unconsciously.
d. none of the above.*
a. an increase in the number of action potentials per second.*
b. an increase in the magnitude of the action potential(s..
c. that the number of action potentials per second will remain the same.
d. a and b
a. distance the chemicals must travel to have an effect.*
b. types of chemicals used as transmitters.
c. means by which messages travel from one cell to another.
d. presence (endocrine. vs. absence (nervous. of target organs.
a. People with a severed corpus callosum can respond to simple written commands presented to only the left of their fixation point.*
b. Most normal right-handed people can write some with their left hand.
c. People with a severed corpus callosum can answer questions delivered to either ear.
d. Strokes in the left hemisphere of right-handed people severely disrupt language understanding.
d. either b or c*
a. decrease in total blood volume*
b. an increase in blood glucose concentration
c. heating of the posterior hypothalamus
d. a and c
a. absorb calories less efficiently than normal and hence must eat more.
b. have more neurons than normal in specialized areas of their hypothalamus.
c. live in a culture that provides abundant cues for eating food high in calories.
d. burn nutrient fuel more efficiently than normal.*
a. vegetative functions.
b. slowing of the heart.
c. activating function.*
a. its longevity
b. the number of times it succeeds in mating
c. the number of offspring it produces
d. the number of its grandchildren *
b. threat displays
c. feeding *
a. our cultural norms dictate that women should be more reticent in sexual matters than men.
b. there is more variability in the reproductive potential of men than in the reproductive potential of women.
c. women have learned that men cannot always be trusted to fulfill their parental responsibilities.
d. a woman's biological investment in children is greater than a man's. *
a. most mammals have a repertoire of displays and signals that is nearly half as large as the word vocabulary of the average human adult.
b. the animal display "language" is a flexible productive system.
c. animal displays are often chained together or organized to form longer and more complex messages.
d. none of the above*
a. extinction involved the undoing of the CS-US connection established during conditioning.
b. associations diminished in intensity during conditioning.
c. the amount of inhibition built up during extinction did not diminish over time.
d. extinction involved the suppression of the CR established during conditioning. *
a. more effective.
b. less effective. *
c. equally effective.
d. none of the above
43 In the typical classical conditioning experiment performed by Pavlov, the relationship between the CS and the US was:
c. both contiguous and contingent. *
d. neither contiguous nor contingent.
a. pressing a bar in order to avoid shock
b. staying immobile in order to avoid shock *
c. turning a wheel in order to avoid shock
d. making a specific gross motor movement in order to avoid shock
a. association by contiguity.
c. empty organism.
d. passive organism.*
a. a sample that was too small in number.
b. a stratified sample.
c. a biased sample. *
d. all of the above
a. allows for comparison of scores obtained from different distributions. *
b. evaluates a particular score relative to the median and range of distribution.
c. is a measure of central tendency of a distribution.
d. is a measure of variability within a distribution.
a. It will be less than + .50.
b. It will be more than + .50.
c. It will be + .50. *
d. There is no way of telling what it will be without knowing the means and standard deviations of the two tests.
a. it is less than two standard deviations away from the mean.
b. it is more than two standard deviations away from the mean. *
c. it is above 70.
d. it is between one and two standard deviations away from the mean.
a. the point at which the proximal sensory stimulus impinges upon the organism.
b. the conversion of the proximal stimulus into a receptor process, which gives rise to a neural impulse. *
c. the psychological sensation associated with a stimulus.
d. the electrical activity of the cerebral cortex caused by the perception of a stimulus.
c. false alarms.
d. a and c *
a. a frequency of impulse firing in the auditory nerve of approximately 200 hertz. *
b. the basilar membrane vibrating at an average of 200 hertz, with one area vibrating at a substantially faster rate.
c. one place in the basilar membrane going through a larger deflection, whereas adjacent places are not deflected.
d. a wave traveling along the basilar membrane at a frequency of approximately 200 hertz.
a. purplish blue.
c. greenish yellow.*
a. young children (six months. have no depth perception.
b. perceptual abilities for perceiving depth are innate.
c. by the time they can crawl, infants show depth perception. *
d. none of the above
a. you pay attention to stimuli that are the most meaningful at the time.
b. the same stimulus can give rise to more than one percept.*
c. different stimuli can give rise to the same percept.
d. perceptual processes are built up from the synthesis of primitive features.
a. see figures standing out against a ground.
b. resolve ambiguities in patterns of stimuli.
c. perceive depth in paintings.
d. perceive objects as invariant despite changes in sensory activity.*
a. the same primacy effect for both groups; a greater recency effect for group I.
b. the same primacy effect for both groups; a greater recency effect for group II.
c. the same recency effect in both groups; a greater primacy effect for group I.
d. the same recency effect for both groups; a greater primacy effect for group II.*
a. The material to be learned usually has an intrinsic organization.*
b. Mnemonic schemes can only be used with meaningless material.
c. Abstract, rather than concrete, examples are most helpful in learning most course material.
d. The delay between study and examinations is usually too long for mnemonic schemes to work.
a. the more confused a person is likely to be at the time of retrieval.
b. the greater the chance for proactive inhibition.
c. the greater the likelihood of retrieval.*
d. the less is the need for chunking.
a. falls off quickly, then levels off.
b. falls off gradually during its entire course.
c. falls off slowly at first, then quickly thereafter.
d. shows that all learners achieve the same baseline after many years have passed.
b. not arbitrary.
a. Is a maple a tree?
b. Is a table furniture?
c. Is a penguin a bird?*
d. Is a rose a flower?
a. increases and plateaus in performance.*
b. steady increases in performance.
c. a constant plateau in performance.
d. a Stroop effect.
a. it might work even on an ill-defined problem.*
b. that the heuristic gives only one solution.
c. one is assured of eventually getting a correct answer.
d. the heuristic allows more creative responses.
a. utilities are subjective, while values are objective.*
b. the probabilities in value theory are valid, while those in utility theory are distorted.
c. the computation of utilities, but not values is biased by the wording of the question.
d. utility theory assumes that the decision maker is rational, while value theory does not.
a. a list of all the features that characterize a category.
b. a list of all the defining features that characterize a category.
c. a family resemblance.
d. a mental average of all the various examples of a category a person has encountered. *
a. children begin to babble in order to initiate communication with their parents.
b. deaf children babble throughout their lifetime but never develop speech.
c. infants have no means, other than babbling, to communicate with parents.
d. none of the above *
a. only humans can transmit messages.
b. the ability to solve problems is unique to humans.
c. animals are unable to use sounds.
d. it employs rules for arranging sounds or letters into meaningful combinations.*
a. a dissenting minority cannot withstand the opinion of the majority.
b. social comparison is especially important in ambiguous situations. *
c. uncertainty increases emotional disturbance.
d. ambiguity produces more rigid responses.
a. intelligent; stupid
b. obedient; disobedient
c. cold; warm *
d. determined; cautious
a. be equally likely to infer situational or dispositional causes.
b. infer dispositional causes more readily than situational causes. *
c. infer situational causes more readily than dispositional causes.
d. overlook both situational and dispositional causes in assigning reasons for behavior.
a. physiological state plays a sufficient role in determining emotion.
b. interpretive processes play a sufficient role in determining emotion.
c. interpretive processes play a necessary role in determining emotion. *
d. none of the above
a. decreased *
d. It depends on the situation.
a. increases the variability of the performer's responses.
b. increases highly dominant responses. *
c. increases the strength of relatively weak (nondominant. responses.
d. none of the above
a. can sway a majority by its consistency and determination. *
b. is nevertheless rarely successful against a majority.
c. has a superficial effect on the thinking of a majority.
d. is eventually swayed by the majority.
a. members of the crowd experience intense fear.
b. members of the crowd believe that all escape routes are blocked.
c. members of the crowd believe that escape routes are limited or are closing. *
d. b and c only
a. are consistent with a larger theoretical scheme. *
b. correlate well with some criterion measure.
c. accurately predict performance at a later time.
d. show that the test is both reliable and valid.
a. an increase in false accepts and an increase in false rejects
b. an increase in false accepts and a decrease in false rejects *
c. a decrease in false accepts and an increase in false rejects
d. a decrease in false accepts and a decrease in false rejects
a. word fluency *
b. factual knowledge
a. Spending a longer time in an impoverished environment leads to a lower IQ score.
b. Spending a longer time in an enriched environment leads to a higher IQ score.
c. Children raised in environments better than that of their biological parents have higher IQs than would be predicted by their biological parents alone.
d. all of the above *
a. how often she or he has stolen things in the past *
b. the score value of his or her psychopathic deviance scale on the MMPI
c. ratings and predictions about the individual's behavior from peers
d. self-predictions gathered from a confidential questionnaire
a. the incremental validity of both the Rorschach and TAT tests is high.
b. the incremental validity of the Rorschach is low, while the incremental validity of the TAT is very high.
c. the incremental validity of the TAT is low, while the incremental validity of the Rorschach is high.
d. the incremental validity of both the Rorschach and TAT is low.*
a. an effect of the situation.
b. an effect of differences in personal traits. *
c. an effect of a person-by-situation interaction.
d. no effect.
a. we tend to avoid the feared object or situation, and so the fear can never be extinguished. *
b. for evolutionary reasons, fear is a stronger motivator than desire.
c. human classical conditioning is partly determined by conscious cognitions, which are more difficult to change than reflexive conditioned responses.
d. all of the above
a. three separate personalities inhabiting one body.
b. three different sets of reaction patterns within each personality. *
c. three separate stages in personality development.
d. three distinct types of unconscious conflict.
a. hidden sexual urges of childhood
b. an overactive superego
c. parents' reprimands for forbidden thoughts or deeds *
d. various unconscious conflicts
a. early social experience.
b. internal conflicts.
c. biological determination. *
d. individual differences in the formation of personality.
a. the patterns of physiological reaction underlying emotions are probably universal.
b. the facial expressions of emotion appear to be universal.
c. the particular experiences that elicit specific emotions appear to vary from culture to culture.
d. all of the above *
a. is considered to result from a complex mixture of genetic and environmental factors.
b. is responsible for the fact that the sequence of steps in motor and perceptual development is different from infant to infant.
c. is a genetically programmed unfolding of behavior patterns that is independent of specific environmental conditions. *
d. both a and b
d. object permanence. *
b. schema invariance
c. egocentrism *
d. conservation failure
a. in some cultures, many adults fail tests of concrete operations.
b. formal operational thinking is seldom found in cultures without formal schooling.
c. in some preliterate hunting-gathering cultures, formal operational logic appears before concrete operational thought.
d. all of the above *
a. securely attached. *
b. insecurely attached (avoidant..
c. insecurely attached (resistant..
d. insecurely attached (disorganized..
a. They will be moody and defiant but will show a striking amount of independence.
b. They will be socially mature for their age but generally pessimistic.
c. They will be independent and show social responsibility.
d. They will seem immature and will not show much independence. *
a. moral reasoning.
b. preconventional morality.
c. maximal sufficiency.
d. postconventional morality.*
a. acquire the gender role and identity appropriate to the new classification. *
b. learn the new gender role with great difficulty.
c. show permanent confusion over gender identity.
d. retain their original gender identity.
a. child-driven *
d. family context
a. we are able to modify our own behavior in accordance with our experiences.
b. we are able to conceive of alternatives to the present state of affairs.
c. we are able to use language to convey knowledge to other people.
d. all of the above.*