University of California, Berkeley
Department of Psychology

Psychology 1
Fall 2000

Final Examination
Scoring Key and Preliminary Feedback

The initial scoring of the exam revealed several "bad" items, #s 5, 12, 33, 36, 65, 76, 85, and 100. These items were rescored correct for all responses. In addition, #23 was incorrectly keyed, and this error was corrected. The initial scoring yielded a mean score of 63.40 (63.4% correct), with a standard deviation of 12.69. With the "bad" items rescored correct for all responses, and the incorrectly keyed item corrected, the mean rose to 69.48 (69.5% correct). Very good performance.

In this feedback, I give the pass percent and item-to-total correlations for each item, as well as paragraphs analyzing the test items.

Choose the best answer to each of the following 100 questions. Questions are drawn from the text and lectures in roughly equal proportions, with the understanding that there is considerable overlap between the two sources. Usually, only one question is drawn from each major section of each chapter of the required readings; again, sometimes this question also draws on material discussed in class. Read the entire exam through before answering any questions: sometimes one question will help you answer another one.

Most questions can be correctly answered in one of two ways: (1) by fact-retrieval, meaning that you remember the answer from your reading of the text or listening to the lecture; or (2) inference, meaning that you can infer the answer from some general principle discussed in the text or lecture. If you cannot determine the correct answer by either of these methods, try to eliminate at least one option as clearly wrong: this maximizes the likelihood that you will get the correct answer by chance. Also, go with your intuitions: if you have actually done the assigned readings and attended the lectures, your "informed guesses" will likely be right more often than they are wrong.

Be sure you are using a red Scantron sheet.

Fill in the appropriate circles with a #2 pencil only.

Be sure you put your name on the front of the red Scantron sheet.

Be sure you put your Student ID# on both sides of the red Scantron sheet.

1. A 3-month-old fetus:

A. has fully developed reflex patterns, and can cry, breathe, and swallow.
B. looks like a little worm, and is only about a fifth of an inch long.
*C. is 3 inches long, and has some early reflexes and some functioning organ systems.
D. has mature neurons with complex interconnections of axons and dendrites with other nerve cells.

72% correct, item-to-total r = .15.
2. If we consider the internal events that determine whether an individual is male or female we find that:

A. genetic sex (XX or XY) is the crucial factor: An XY fetus invariably develops as a male.
*B. male hormones (androgens) are critical: In the absence of male hormones an XY fetus will develop as a female.
C. female hormones (estrogens) are critical: In the absence of female hormones an XX fetus will develop as a male.
D. sex hormones (androgens or estrogens) are critical: Without male hormones an XY fetus develops as a female; without estrogens, an XX fetus develops as a male.

49%, .40.
3. Object permanence refers to the child's awareness that:

A. a variety of actions can be coordinated into one organized schema.
B. the mass of an object does not change despite transformations in the shape of the object.
*C. objects exist independent of one's direct perception of them or action upon them.
D. certain motor patterns can become permanently associated with specific environmental objects.

93%, .40.
4. A number of studies have examined the infant's awareness of the existence of other human minds. These studies indicate that:

A. within minutes of birth, infants seem to have a preference for human faces over other sorts of patterns.
B. nine-month-old infants tend to look in the direction of their mother's gaze.
C. eighteen-month-old infants who are prevented from following their mothers' gaze will look where she had been looking as soon as they are allowed to do so.
*D. all of the above

81%, .17.
5. In twin studies, the contribution of the nonshared environment may be estimated by the:

A. difference between MZ and DZ correlations.
*B. MZ correlation
C. phenotype
D. phyletic imprimatur

36%, .06. A BAD ITEM. I didn't expect you to have memorized the formulas presented in class, but understanding the concepts should have led to correct answers. Monozygotic (MZ) twins are genetically identical, dizygotic (DZ) twins are no more alike, genetically, than nontwin siblings. Because MZ and DZ twins share the same shared environment, the genetic contribution to some trait is estimated by the difference between them (two times the difference, but that's a tehnical detail). MZ twins are genetically identical, and share the same shared environment, so any MZ correlation less than the perfect 1.0 indicates the contribution of the nonshared environment. Therefore, you can estimate the contribution of the nonshared environment by knwing nothing more than the MZ correlation. The contribution of the shared environment is what is left over after genetic effects and the nonshared environment are accounted for.
6. The "child-as-novice" argument suggests that:

*A. children's memory appears worse than it really is because they have so little context for their experiences.
B. improvements in children's memory are due solely to motivation.
C. a child's memory performance will be the same in each domain.
D. b and c

81%, .35.
7. When unschooled Russian peasants from central Asia were asked to pick from four pictures the three that belonged together:

A. their performance showed that they did not understand the concept of grouping.
B. they chose according to an abstract semantic category.
*C. they chose concretely and functionally, picking three objects that would be used or found together.
D. they based their choice on what they thought the experimenter wanted, rather than on their own natural or abstract categories.

71%, .35.
8. In evaluating the nonshared environment, the "match" between child and parent is covered by __________ effects.

A. child-driven
*B. relationship-driven
C. parent-driven
D. family context

56%, .22.
9. Concerning effects of early separation from mother, and of nonmaternal care,

A. children with more than 20 hours per week of nonmaternal care are more likely to show insecure patterns of attachment.
B. children in day-care may be more independent and self-reliant than their non-day-care peers.
C. children in day-care have been found to be higher in measures of sociability, persistence, and achievement than non-day-care peers.
*D. all of the above

63%, .07.
10. Studies of the effects of breast-feeding, weaning, and toilet training on child development indicate that:

A. breast-feeding and weaning are related to attachment behavior, but toilet training seems to have no clear connection with later development.
B. toilet training seems to be modestly related to moral development, but neither breast-feeding nor weaning seem to play any clear role in later development.
C. all three seem to play at least some role in the socialization of the young child.
*D. contrary to Freud's claims, none of these three aspects of child rearing seem to play any role in the socialization of the young child.

48%, .38.
11. When a child is forced through harsh threats and punishment to behave in a certain manner, she will probably:

*A. not internalize the behavior as valuable.
B. not comply with the pressure she's under.
C. understand the behavior better than a child who is asked to do it rather than being forced.
D. both comply with the pressure and internalize the behavior as valuable.

68%, .38.
12. Which of the following statements is false?

A. People typically play more roughly with baby boys than with baby girls.
B. By age eleven, children are well aware of gender-role stereotypes in our society.
*C. Boys and girls are equally pressured to maintain gender-role stereotypes.
D. Fathers reinforce gender-role stereotypes somewhat more than mothers do.

38%, .13. A BAD ITEM. This has to do with gender-role socialization. One aspect of evocation is that boys elicit rougher play from others than girls do; therefore A is true. Children are well aware of gender stereotypes well before age 11, more like age 5 or 6 (by the time they enter school); therefore B is true. There is an asymeetry in gender-role socialization, such that there is more socialization pressure placed on boys than girls, resulting in "taboo" behavior on the part of boys; therefore C is false. Part of that socialization pressure, is that fathers are stricter in their socialization activities than mothers are; therefore D is true.
13. According to Erikson, the major goal of adolescent development is:

A. learning to deal with new sexuality.
B. learning to think abstractly.
C. distinguishing yourself from your younger siblings.
*D. development of a sense of identity.

83%, .22.
14. Suppose a certain mental disorder is believed to be caused by severe fear reactions suffered in childhood. A new discovery shows that the disorder is really caused by the lack of a specific enzyme. The disorder will now change in classification from what to what?

A. somatogenic to psychogenic.
B. hysterical to psychoanalytic.
C. psychoanalytic to pathological
*D. psychogenic to somatogenic

74%, .43.
15. In psychiatric classifications, a "syndrome" is:

*A. a pattern of signs and symptoms that usually occur together.
B. a form of disorganized thinking associated with schizophrenia.
C. the key symptom for identifying each psychiatric disorder.
D. a mental disorder that causes physical damage.

96%, .28.
16. __________ are misinterpretations of real events, while __________ are experiences with no real basis in external sensory stimulation.

A. Disturbances of thought; hallucinations
B. Hallucinations; ideas of reference
*C. Delusions; hallucinations
D. Ideas of reference; delusions

96%, .27.
17. Antidepressant medications typically:

*A. elevate levels of both norepinephrine and serotonin.
B. elevate levels of norepinephrine and suppress levels of serotonin.
C. suppress levels of norepinephrine and elevate levels of serotonin.
D. suppress levels of both norepipnephrine and serotonin.

57%, .38.
18. According to a conditioning account of phobias, the feared object acts as a(n):

*A. conditioned stimulus.
B. unconditioned stimulus.
C. conditioned response.
D. unconditioned response.

66%, .29.
19. A characteristic feature of the functional psychoses such as schizophrenia is:

A. definitive evidence of brain damage.
B. abnormal pace of development since birth.
*C impairments in reality testing.
D. high levels of ego-syntonic anxiety.

75%, .40.
20. The aspects of Type A behavior patterns responsible for the link with coronary heart disease are probably:

*A. continual hostility manifested as anger, cynicism, and distrust.
B. competitiveness and constant striving to be better than others.
C. the individual's inability to relax and enjoy his or her life.
D. none of the above

64%, .26. I don't intentionally repeat items from past exams, but this one slipped in accidentally, because I take some exam questions from a bank of questions prepared by the textbook publisher. Unfortunately, in the presentation of this item on the Fall 1998 exam, a typographical error led the wrong answer, B, to be keyed as correct. The correct answer is A: it's not competitiveness that kills you, it's chronic hostility. It might be argued that this item should have been eliminated, but here's where the statistical analysis really helps. The item-to-total correlation for the correct answer, A, was .26, above my threshold for acceptance, while the item-to-total correlation for the incorrect answer, B, was only .05, well below that threshold. Put differently: those who chose A did better on the rest of the test than those who did not, but this was not the case for those who chose B. Incidentally, there is a lesson here about the use of the exams as study guides: it's best not to memorize answers to old tests (not least because old items are rarely repeated verbatim), but rather to figure out why the right answer is right and the wrong answers wrong.
21. Which of the following is not a characteristic of antisocial personality?

A. a lack of genuine love or loyalty
*B. high levels of fear and anxiety
C. well-developed social skills
D. little remorse about past misdeeds

29%, .41.
22. Studies of eye-tracking movements suggest that:

A. the psychological deficit in schizophrenia affects central but not peripheral mechanisms.
*B. the psychological deficit in schizophrenia affects peripheral as well as central mechanisms.
C. schizophrenic patients lack a "theory of mind"
D. schizophrenia is caused by defective opponent processes.

69%, .11.
23. Cognitive therapy is related to behavior therapy because:

A. classical conditioning is used extensively to change cognitions.
*B. the therapist is extremely directive in her attempts to change the client's thinking.
C. elaborate client histories allow insight into childhood events.
D. all of the above

41%, .32. A CHANGE IN ITEM KEYING. In the original key posted to the website, a typographical error led A to be indicated as the correct answer. But cognitive therapists don't use classical conditioning extensively to change cognitions; they use other "educational" interventions, such as reasoning and problem-solving. What both behavior and cognitive therapists have in common is directiveness (Option B): in contrast to insight-oriented psychodynamic therapists, they are much more likely to tell the patient what is wrong, and how it can be fixed. Both behavioral and cognitive therapists also focus on the "here and now" of the patient's present circumstances, as contrasted to the psychodynamic therapist's emphasis on the "then and there" of childhood, so Option C is incorrect.
24. A "meta-analytic" review indicates that the average person who receives therapy is better off at the end of it than ________ of persons who do not receive therapy.

A. 10 percent
B. 25 percent
C. 50 percent
*D. 80 percent

67%, .40.
25. Some therapies work better than others for specific disorders. For example:

A. anxiety disorders are best treated using behavior therapies.
B. cognitive therapy is more effective than behavior therapy for panic disorder.
C. psychotherapy is of little use in bipolar disorders.
*D. all of the above

82%, .27.
26. The subject matter of psychology:

A. may include biological analyses of the behavior of organisms.
B. includes an analysis of organisms in isolation and in groups.
C. may include an analysis of organisms other than humans.
*D. all of the above

97%, .27.
27. One function of the mind is to create internal, mental representations of the external environment. For that reason, psychology must be a _____ science as well as a _____ science.

A. social; biological
B. experimental; correlational
*C. physical; cognitive
D. "hard"; "soft"

54%, .30.
28. A psychologist plans to investigate the effects of room lighting on mood in high school students. In this study, what is the dependent variable?

A. the room lighting
*B. mood
C. the age of the participants
D. the sample size of the participants

73%, .35.
29. When considering the costs and benefits of the various research methods, it is important to remember that:

*A. correlation does not imply causation.
B. experimentation does not imply manipulation.
C. observation does not imply theorization.
D. all of the above

48%, .25.
30. In a ______________ sample, every individual has an equal opportunity for selection to participate in a research study, compared to any other individual.

A. matched
*B. random
C. population
D. planned

91%, .34.
31. A researcher asks people to look at 20 works of art and assign each a number from 1 (most preferred) to 20 (least preferred). These numbers form a(n):

A. interval scale.
*B. ordinal scale.
C. ratio scale.
D. categorical scale.

56%, .26.
32. In the distribution: 1, 2, 5, 7, 7, 9, 10, 10, 10, 12, the median is:

A. 7.3.
B. 7.
C. 10.
*D. 8.

75%, .30.
33. An experimenter tests a certain variable by running an experimental and a control group. He knows that the variable has an effect if:

*A. the variance within the experimental and the control groups is substantially less than the overall variance.
B. the variance within the experimental and the control groups is substantially more than the overall variance.
C. if the variance within the experimental group is substantially more than the variance within the control group.
D. if the variance within the experimental group is substantially less than the variance within the control group.

12%, .15. A BAD ITEM. A variable "has an effect" if it accounts for a significant proportion of the overall variance in a popularion. One way of expressing this is that the variance within each group is less than the variance between groups. So, for example, if there is a significant sex difference in performance on some task, we would expect both males to be more like each other, and females to be more like each other. If there is not a significant difference in performance, we would expect males and females to be as similar to each other as each is to its own group.
34. From what you know about the position of the various brain areas, which of the following seems most probable?

A. Damage to Wernicke's area is more likely to be accompanied by paralysis than is damage to Broca's area.
B. Damage to Wernicke's area is more likely to be accompanied by deafness in the left ear than in the right ear.
C. Damage to Broca's area is more likely to be accompanied by paralysis of the left arm than by paralysis of the right arm.
*D. Damage to Broca's area is more likely to be accompanied by paralysis than is damage to Wernicke's area.

37%, .30.
35. Damage to internal organs associated with exposure to stress probably reflects the:

*A. general adaptation syndrome
B. overspecialization of the cranial nerves
C. activation of the parasympathetic nervous system
D. anterograde amnesia.

49%, .38.
36. A right-handed woman with a severed corpus callosum fixates on the exact center of a screen just as the word pineapple is flashed for a quarter of a second. She must indicate what she saw by reaching with her left hand into a grab bag filled with a variety of objects. Which object is she most likely to select?

A. a small pineapple
*B. a bough of a pine tree
C. an apple
D. the letters E and A made from wire

17%, .11. A BAD ITEM. According to the principle of contralateral projection, the left hemisphere receives input from the right visual field, and controls action on the right side of the body, while the right hemisphere receives input from the left visual field, and controls action on the left side of the body. For this patient, therefore, the word-part "pine", which is on the left side of the screen, will be processed by her right hemisphere; this hemisphere will not process the wordpart "apple", which is on the right side of the screen (and thus is processed by the left hemisphere). So, the right hemisphere, "thinking pine", will select the pine bough with the left hand, which it also controls. The left hemisphee, "thinking apple", might well select an apple, but this would be with the right hand, which it controls.
37. Most mood-altering drugs, such as cocaine and heroin, create their effects by:

A. eliminating all-or-none nerve impulses.
*B. altering activity at synapses through specific neurotransmitters.
C. reducing the release of endorphins.
D. activating the autonomic nervous system.

81%, .20.
38. The "visual area" of the brain is associated with the _____ lobe.

A. frontal
B. parietal
C. temporal
*D. occipital

85%, .29.
39. External cues such as the sight of food:

A. act independently of internal cues such as feelings of satiety.
*B. are more likely to lead to eating in the context of hunger than satiety.
C. are more likely to lead to eating in the context of satiety than hunger.
D. have no effect on the hypothalamus.

59%, .27.
40. On Halloween, you were frightened by a ghost. Your heart began to pound and your face became flushed. This reaction resulted from activation of your:

A. central nervous system.
B. parasympathetic nervous system.
*C. sympathetic nervous system.
D. homeostatic nervous system

80%, .45.
41. A person begins having delusions of persecution, irrational fears, and some hallucinations. You know for sure that the person is not schizophrenic. What is the most logical explanation for her behavior?

A. A key neurotransmitter is missing or impaired.
B. The person is addicted to alcohol.
C. The person is addicted to barbiturates.
*D. The person is addicted to amphetamines or cocaine.

73%, .32.
42. Fixed-action patterns are:

A. behavioral tendencies that are shared by a number of different species.
B. behaviors acquired as a result of experiences in a particular environment.
*C. genetically pre-programmed behavior sequences.
D. agonistic displays that occur at the beginning of mating rituals.

72%, .36.
43. In examining animal aggression we find that:

A. males are generally more aggressive than females in most vertebrate species.
B. male aggressiveness is associated with high levels of testosterone in the blood.
C. most animal aggressiveness is linked to struggles over scarce resources.
*D. all of the above

88%, .25.
44. Innate stimulus-response patterns, such as reflexes and instincts:

A. show that behavior is not subject to evolution by natural selection.
*B. do not permit individual organisms to adjust to changes in the environment.
C. are limited to responses to simple stimuli.
D. are limited to simple behaviors.

49%, .31.
45. Human infants provide stimuli in the form of __________ that release parental behaviors.

*A. facio-cranial features such as large eyes, an upturned nose, and a large protruding forehead
B. hand gestures such as pointing
C. special pheromones that endow the baby (to the age of 14-18 months) with a unique scent
D. all of the above

32%, .25.
46. A dog is conditioned with a 1000Hz tone as a CS and it secretes 10 drops of saliva when presented with this CS. How many drops of saliva should we expect if we then present the dog with a tone of 750 and 500 cycles respectively?

A. about 7 drops, about 7 drops
B. about 3 drops, about 7 drops
*C. about 7 drops, about 3 drops
D. about 2 drops, about 3 drops

83%, .25.
47. Thorndike proposed that learning occurs because certain responses become reinforced and therefore become more likely to occur. This is known as the:

A. law of instrumentality.
*B. law of effect.
C. law of purpose.
D. law of determinacy.

78%, .26.
48. What is the contingency learned in classical conditioning?

*A. If CS, then US and if not CS, then not US.
B. If CS, then CR and if not CS, then not CR.
C. If US, then UR and if not US, then not UR.
D. If US, then CS and if not US, then not CS.

38%, .36.
49. Tolman's experiments on latent learning showed that:

A. learning is mediated by contiguity, not contingency.
B. learning is mediated by contingency, not contiguity.
C. reinforcement is necessary for learning to occur.
*D. reinforcement controls behavior, but not learning.

44%, .29.
50. The fact that even very young infants avoid sharp drop-offs is consistent with the __________ position on perception.

A. empiricist
*B. nativist
C. schematic
D. constructivist

83%, .47.
51. Sounds in the environment enter the ear and cause a membrane in the inner ear to vibrate. In the case of audition, vibration of this inner ear membrane represents the:

*A. proximal stimulus.
B. distal stimulus.
C. sensation.
D. neural basis of the tabula rasa.

74%, .38.
52. The idea that different sound frequencies trigger different neurons is called:

A. frequency theory.
B. volley theory.
C. Young-Helmholtz theory.
*D. place theory.

31%, .29.
53. According to opponent-process theory, what color is perceived when there is excitation of both blue and red systems, with concomitant inhibition of their antagonists?

*A. violet
B. black
C. achromatic
D. white

76%, .06.
54. As we look from left to right, objects in front of us do not seem to move from right to left because:

A. there is no relative displacement on the retina.
*B. information regarding voluntary eye movement compensates for information regarding retinal displacement.
C. there is relative displacement on the retina.
D. there is no absolute displacement on the retina.

70%, .38.
55. Many visual illusions, such as the Ames Room, occur because:

*A. the visual system unconsciously compensates for cues to distance.
B. the visual system correctly applies the principles of constancy.
C. Gestalt principles of symmetry and good continuation complete a fragmentary percept.
D. bottom-up processes overcompensate for top-down processes.

59%, .09.
56. Expectancies and context effects are especially important in:

A. Gestalt principles of organization.
B. feature detection.
C. bottom-up processing.
*D. top-down processing.

53%, .43.
57. Objects A and B both cast the same size image on your retina, yet distance cues indicate that A is closer to you. You therefore perceive:

A. A and B to be objects of the same size at different distances.
*B. A to be smaller than B.
C. A to be larger than B.
D. A and B to be objects of the same size, equally far from you.

64%, .32.
58. Two groups hear a list of 20 unrelated items at the same 1-item-per-second rate and are then tested for free recall. For group I, the test comes 1 second after hearing the last item in the list. For group II, the test comes 30 seconds after hearing the last item, with the 30 seconds filled with backward counting. We would expect:

*A. the same primacy effect for both groups; a greater recency effect for group I.
B. the same primacy effect for both groups; a greater recency effect for group II.
C. the same recency effect for both groups; a greater primacy effect for group I.
D. the same recency effect for both groups; a greater primacy effect for group II.

64%, .32.
59. Repeating someone's name after you've met them for the first time is an example of _____ rehearsal.

*A. maintenance
B. elaborative
C. orthographic
D. retrograde

86%, .34.
60. When a memory is presently inaccessible it may sometimes be recalled by using an appropriate:

A. chunk.
B. nonsense syllable.
*C. retrieval cue.
D. mnemonic device.

95%, .12.
61. In cases of anterograde amnesia patients have trouble:

A. remembering what they learned prior to the brain trauma.
B. remembering what they learned during the periods immediately prior to and immediately following the brain trauma, but memory capacities eventually recover.
*C. retrieving information initially encountered after the brain trauma.
D. remembering those past events, the representation of which is stored in the hippocampus.

45%, .28.
62. Phenomena such as state-dependent and mood-dependent memory illustrate the _____ principle.

A. organization
B. cue-dependency
*C. encoding specificity
D. schematic processing

68%, .32.
63. The Arabic number 3 is an example of a(n) __________ representation.

A. mental
B. hypothetical
C. analogical
*D. symbolic

90%, .24.
64. A big advantage of using algorithms for solving problems is that they:

*A. will eventually result in a correct solution.
B. work more efficiently than do heuristics.
C. are the methods used by experts when solving difficult problems in their own area of expertise.
D. all of the above

79%, .40.
65. A person who believes, erroneously, that sex-education in elementary school is responsible for a large number of unwed mothers has probably based his or her judgment on the __________ heuristic.

A. availability
*B. representativeness
C. means-end
D. anchoring and adjustment

33%, .02. A BAD ITEM. Not clear why, though, Availability has to do with salience in perception, or ease of retrieving instances from memory. Representativeness has to do with resemblance and similarity, or"like goes with like". In the present instance, the erroneous belief that something about sex causes something else about sex is an instance of "like goes with like".
66. If the government decides to report unemployment statistics in terms of the number of people working instead of the number of people out of work, and the basic information is the same, the public may react more positively due to the effect of __________ on judgments.

A. mental set
B. availability and representativeness
*C. framing
D. confirmation biases

78%, .46.
67. Organizations rarely conduct an exhaustive search to find the very best candidate for a particular job. This illustrates a departure from:

A. conditional reasoning
B. rational self-interest
*C. optimality
D. utility

74%, .14.
68. Spoken utterances of garden-path sentences such as, "The cabin struck by the tree fell" are less likely to result in confusion than written statements. Why is this?

*A. Spoken utterances are accompanied by extralinguistic factors.
B. Spoken utterances are processed more rapidly than written statements.
C. Written statements are accompanied by extralinguistic factors.
D. Written statements are processed more rapidly than oral statements.

78%, .37. There was a typographical error in Option D, which originally said that "Written statements are processed more rapidly than written statements", but that shouldn't have mattered and i didn't. Only 1% of students chose Option D.
69. Parents of two- and three-year-olds are most likely to correct their children's:

A. grammatical errors.
*B. factual errors.
C. errors of both grammar and fact.
D. sentences that show ambiguity in the use of words.

79%, .32.
70. Human language can be differentiated from most or all animal behavior because:

A. only humans can communicate with others.
B. the ability to solve problems is unique to humans.
C. animals are unable to emit communcatory sounds.
*D. human language has rules for arranging sounds into meaningful combinations.

93%, .33.
71. The results of a standard Asch line-judgment task compared to one in which the lines are difficult to distinguish indicate that:

A. a dissenting minority cannot withstand the opinion of the majority.
*B. social comparison is especially important in ambiguous situations.
C. uncertainty increases emotional disturbance.
D. ambiguity produces more rigid responses.

65%, .46.
72. The fundamental attribution error is that in making attributions for the behavior of others, we tend to:

A. overemphasize situational factors.
*B. overemphasize dispositional factors.
C. assume that their behavior has the same causes as our own behavior.
D. overemphasize the role of chance.

77%, .59.
73. Among the criticisms of the James-Lange theory of emotion is (are) which of the following?

A. Our subjective experience of an emotion generally does not occur until we have cognitively interpreted the situation as emotion-arousing.
*B. Although emotional experiences vary widely, sympathetic reactions to arousing stimuli are very similar.
C. Artificial autonomic arousal is generally accompanied by the experience of an emotional state.
D. all of the above

25%, .26. A hard item, but not a bad one.
74. According to social exchange theory:

A. human relationships have nothing to do with economics.
*B. relationships in which one person takes without giving will not last.
C. all relationships require some financial interchange.
D. all relationships require the exchange of something tangible like money, food, or gifts.

85%, .31.
75. When research participants in an Asch line-judgment study wrote their answers down instead of saying them aloud:

*A. consistent with a motivational account, they showed less conformity than in the aloud condition.
B. consistent with an informational account, they showed less conformity than in the aloud condition.
C. consistent with a motivational account, they showed as much conformity as in the aloud condition.
D. consistent with an informational account, they showed as much conformity as in the aloud condition.

40%, .21.
76. People who believe that someone has been diagnosed with a mental illness often treat that person differently than they would if that person were "normal". This tendency reflects:

A. evocation
B. selection
*C. cognitive transformation
D. cognitive dissonance

32%, .18. A BAD ITEM. People affect the environment, which includes other people and what they do, in a number of ways. In evocation, the effect is mediated by the person's mere presence or appearance. In selection, by the person's choice of one environment over another. In behavioral manipulation, by the person's overt behavior, which changes the objective environment, for everyone. In cognitive transformation, by the person's thought, which changes the private, subjective, internal representation of the environment. In this case, a belief, or cognitive transformation, starts the process. If they did not believe that the person had been diagnosed with mental illness, or they had some other belief about mental illness, the process would have gone differently. Cognitive dissonance has to do with how we resolve conflicts between beliefs, or between our beliefs and our behavior.
77. When the logic of the prisoner's dilemma is applied to panic situations, it seems clear that panic behavior would not occur if each individual:

A. maximized his own payoff.
B. disapproved of others who pushed ahead.
*C. could trust the others to calmly take their turns.
D. acted rationally regardless of others' behavior.

66%, .47.
78. The test-retest method is a method to determine:

*A. the reliability of a test.
B. the validity of a test.
C. the norms of a test.
D. whether a test has appropriate standardization.

65%, .34.
79. The view that intelligence is a composite of separate abilities is called the:

A. crystallized intelligence theory.
B. general intelligence theory.
*C. group factor theory.
D. cognitive consonance theory.

22%, .26. Another difficult item, but not a bad one.
80. One piece of evidence supporting Howard Gardner's notion of multiple intelligences is based on the fact that:

A. there are some people who have multiple personalities.
B. people seem to lose one type of intelligence earlier than others.
*C. brain lesions may impair some abilities while leaving others unaffected.
D. at different times in our lives, we may excel at one type of intelligence at the expense of others.

72%, .37.
81. Validating hypotheses and theoretical formulations of proposed personality traits using a number of different behaviors is called:

A. predictive validation.
*B. construct validation.
C. internal validation.
D. reliability validation.

58%, .22.
82. Jamal and Liz are each given two tests of fearfulness, both rated on a 10 point scale in which zero means no fear and 10 means maximum fear. In the first test, both Jamal and Liz are confronted with a vicious dog. Here, Jamal's fear rating is 9 points and Liz's is 5 In the second test, both are about to take a difficult examination. Here, Jamal's rating is 5 points and Liz's is 9. These results illustrate:

A. situational effects.
B. differences in personal traits.
*C. person-by-situation interactions.
D. none of the above.

38%, .23.
83. How do behaviorists explain human behavior that continues to occur even when reinforcement is not present?

*A. Behavior patterns persist because they have been rewarded some of the time.
B. Humans seek and need attention so they persist in these behaviors.
C. These behaviors are embedded in personality and cannot be extinguished.
D. Radical behaviorists do not attempt to explain this phenomenon.

68%, .41.
84. The dynamics in the psychoanalytic term psychodynamics most clearly refers to the:

A. inevitable conflict between different family members during a child's first 5 to 6 years of life.
*B. relations among the various psychological forces hidden within the individual.
C. differences in temperament among individuals.
D. observations that the behavior of normal people is filled with meaningful activities, whereas that of people with major problems seems to be less active and meaningful.

75%, .40.
85. An ego psychologist would agree with which of the following statements?

*A. People try to deal with the realities of the world rather than hide from them.
B. Behavior can be understood only if you examine past experiences.
C. Normal and abnormal behavior is the sum total of what people have learned over the years.
D. Freudian defense mechanisms allow effective coping strategies.

26%, .07. A BAD ITEM. Classical Freudian psychoanalysts begin with the assumption that anxiety is caused by conflicts between sexual and aggressive fantasies and the demands of the real world. But psychoanalytic ego psychologists believe that anxiety has its sources in the real world as well. For example, Anna Freud, daughter of Sigmund, treated English children who were anxious because their homes were being bombed during "the Blitz" -- not because they loved their mothers and hated their fathers.
86. Humanistic psychologists believe people strive to:

*A. become self-actualizing.
B. behave in ways dictated by outside forces.
C. need to be told what is the matter with them and what they can do about it.
D. focus on only the basic needs of life¾food, sex, and safety.

81%, .51.
87. Twins Jake and Evan are in an experiment. Prior to either child learning to climb stairs, Jake is given a great deal of practice in the movements used in climbing stairs, while Evan is given no special practice. Most likely:

*A. Jake will begin climbing stairs slightly earlier than Evan.
B. Jake and Evan will begin climbing stairs at the same time.
C. Two years later, Jake's motor skills will be better developed than Evan's.
D. a and c

67%, .36.
88. When a child is able to understand that adding 1 to 6 makes an odd number but cannot grasp that 1 added to any even number makes it odd, the child according to Piaget is in the:

A. sensory-motor period.
B. preoperational period.
*C. concrete operations period.
D. formal operations period.

52%, .24.
89. Studies that have attempted to train young children to use rehearsal in a memory task have found that:

A. the children were not able to learn to rehearse.
*B. the children successfully rehearsed on the task for which they were trained, but did not spontaneously apply the newly learned strategy to other tasks.
C. the children rehearsed on the task for which they were trained, but their efforts weren't successful, so they gave up on rehearsal.
D. the children successfully rehearsed on the task for which they were trained and spontaneously applied the newly learned strategy to other tasks.

81%, .31.
90. Sulloway's "Darwinian" analysis of family microenvironments leads him to predict that:

A. boys will be more rebellious than girls.
B. boys will be more conservative than girls.
C. firstborns will be more rebellious than laterborns.
*D. firstborns will be more conservative than laterborns.

76%, .34.
91. Bowlby argues that attachment is due to:

*A. the infant's built-in tendency to seek contact with an adult and to fear the unfamiliar.
B. the fact that the mother attends to the infant's basic needs like food and warmth.
C. the fact that the mother carries the infant everywhere and the infant gets used to that closeness.
D. the emotional satisfaction that the mother provides.

44%, .28.
92. The most independent, competent, and socially responsible children are those who:

*A. are raised by the authoritative-reciprocal pattern of parenting in which the child's point of view is taken into account.
B. are raised by the permissive pattern of parenting in which few demands are placed on the child, allowing her or him to become more independent.
C. are raised by autocratic parents who assure responsibility in their children by using strict control of behavior.
D. are least affected by anxiety, and therefore are less affected by internalization.

91%, .33.
93. Before the age of five or six, children typically fail to recognize:

*A. the permanent nature of gender.
B. the different genders of their parents.
C. the different social roles of the two sexes.
D. both a and b

46%, .40.
94. The distinction between psychogenic and somatogenic disorders:

A. will ultimately be a moot issue because all psychological events are based on neurophysiological processes.
B. will remain with us until the discovery of the neurophysiological basis of learning and memory.
C. is actually based on the differences between conditions with a known organic basis and those for which causes are as yet unknown.
*D. really amounts to saying that the most direct explanation of some disorders is at the psychological level, while for others it is at the organic level.

64%, .16.
95. Studies with schizophrenic twins show that:

A. genetic factors play a minor role in schizophrenia.
*B. identical twins have a higher concordance rate for schizophrenia than do fraternal twins.
C. identical twins are more likely to become schizophrenic than fraternal twins.
D. none of the above

77%, .45.
96. How does the preparedness theory of phobias explain the high incidence of some types of phobias?

A. People don't prepare themselves properly when faced with something that frightens them.
*B. Evolution favors those creatures with a built-in fear of dangerous things, like snakes or spiders.
C. Society prepares people to be afraid of dangerous things like snakes.
D. none of the above

57%, .53.
97. Antipsychotic drugs have drawbacks as well as advantages when they are used to treat schizophrenia. These drugs:

A. only relieve symptoms while they are being taken.
B. are more effective for positive than for negative symptoms.
C. have a number of fairly serious side effects.
*D. all of the above

86%, .34.
98. Psychoanalytically oriented therapists focus on __________ , while behavior therapists focus on __________.

A. doing; understanding
B. feeling; action
*C. understanding; doing
D. present; past

63%, .20.
99. According to the learned helplessness model of depression:

*A. attributional style is the diathesis.
B. the stress is exposure to predictable and controllable aversive events.
C. identical twins will have more diathesis than fraternal twins.
D. patients with "good premorbid personalities" will be at higher risk for depression.

51%, .37.
100. One possible cause of the deterioration effect in psychotherapy is that:

A. therapy raises hopes in the client that are not always realized.
*B. therapy disrupts what is stable in the client's life without providing a substitute.
C. for some clients, therapy slows, but does not stop, a decline in adaptation that began before therapy started.
D. all of the above

17%, .19. A BAD ITEM. This might have gone by a little fast in the textbook, but the point is interesting and important for at least two reasons. Psychotherapy can make people worse as well as better. Initidially, documentation of the deterioration effect was used by Bergin to partly counter Eysenck's claim that psychotherapy had no effect at all: instead, Bergin argued, therapy makes some people better, and others worse; both are effects, but the positive and negative effects cancel each other out when you aggregate results. Later, however, it became clear that there were more substantive reasons for the deterioration effect as well. Traditional, psychodynamic, insight-oriented therapies may lead the person to have insight into his or her problems, but they often stop there and don't help the person cope with the problems, or change his or her behavior. Moreover, patients and families often adjust to their symptoms, and have adjustment problems when the symptoms disappear. Somewhat paradoxically, people who have been sick sometimes need help adjusting when they get well again!

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