Department of Psychology
Midterm Examination 2
Preliminary Scoring Key
Choose the best answer to each of the following 50 questions. Questions are drawn from the text and lectures in roughly equal proportions, with the understanding that there is considerable overlap between the two sources. Usually, only one question is drawn from each major section of each chapter of the required readings; again, sometimes this question also draws on material discussed in class. Read the entire exam through before answering any questions: sometimes one question will help you answer another one.
Most questions can be correctly answered in one of two ways: (1) by fact-retrieval, meaning that you remember the answer from your reading of the text or listening to the lecture; or (2) inference, meaning that you can infer the answer from some general principle discussed in the text or lecture. If you cannot determine the correct answer by either of these methods, try to eliminate at least one option as clearly wrong: this maximizes the likelihood that you will get the correct answer by chance. Also, go with your intuitions: if you have actually done the assigned readings and attended the lectures, your "informed guesses" will likely be right more often than they are wrong.
Be sure you are using a red Scantron sheet.
Fill in the appropriate circles with a #2 pencil only.
Be sure you put your name on the front of the red Scantron sheet.
Be sure you put your Student ID# on both sides of the red Scantron sheet.
1. The primacy effect probably results from the retrieval of items from:
A. semantic or generic memory.
B. working memory.
*C. secondary or long-term memory.
D. implicit memory.
2. When a piece of information is said to be inaccessible, it:
A. was never placed into long-term
B. cannot be retrieved from working memory.
C. is lost forever in working memory.
*D. is presently unretrievable from long-term memory.
3. Rote rehearsal improves retention in:
*A. short-term or primary memory.
B. long-term or secondary memory.
C. episodic or autobiographical memory.
D. semantic or generic memory.
4. The __________ the processing (encoding) of information, the __________ the likelihood of later remembering it.
A. simpler; less
B. simpler; greater
C. more elaborate; less
*D. more elaborate; greater
5. After losing the combination lock for your bicycle, you buy a new combination lock and use it for a couple of weeks. Then you find your old lock and decide to use it again. When you try to remember the combination, you keep bringing in numbers from the new combination. This difficulty indicates:
A. proactive interference.
*B. retroactive interference.
6. Encoding specificity shows that remembering is affected by the _____ of the cues available at retrieval.
A. richness and informativeness
*B. type or quality
7. Suppose that an experiment finds that subjects who strongly favor Ralph Nader for President have exceptionally good memory for arguments against Nader�s candidacy. This outcome might reflect the _____ principle in memory.
*C. schematic processing
D. encoding specificity
8. H.M., the famous neurological patient who has serious and permanent amnesia, can remember some things. For the most part, these things are:
*A. aspects of declarative memory acquired
prior to his surgery and procedural memory of things learned both before
and since his surgery.
B. procedural memory for most things acquired prior to his surgery and episodic memory of things learned both before and since his surgery.
C. procedural memory for most things acquired prior to his surgery and semantic memory for events that have happened since his surgery.
D. implicit memories prior to his surgery and explicit memories since then.
9. The normative model of human judgment and decision-making assumes that:
A. people are incapable of reasoning
*B. choices are made to optimize gains and minimize losses.
C. choices are made without regard to the efficiency of achieving goals.
D. people reason according to fuzzy logic.
10. In the classical view of categories as proper sets:
A. features are only imperfectly correlated
with category membership.
*B. subsets are created by adding defining features to supersets.
C. there are sharp horizontal, but fuzzy vertical, boundaries between adjacent categories.
D. categorization is not based on a calculation of similarity.
11. Verification time for the sentence "Robins are birds" is shorter than verification time for the sentence "Penguins are birds." This difference probably reflects differences in:
A. hierarchical structure of these
concepts in semantic memory.
B. relative difficulty in access to episodic memory.
C. memory activation.
12. If the problem is soluble, an appropriate algorithm:
*A. always leads to a solution to a
B. represents the quickest way of solving a problem.
C. involves forming some hypothesis about a likely solution to the problem and using this hypothesis to direct the problem solving.
D. guarantees subgoals that need to be satisfied in order to reach a solution to the problem.
13. Well-defined problems:
A. there are no obstacles present to reaching the goal.
B. the initial state is given but the final state is not.
C. cannot be solved by means-end strategies.
*D. the initial conditions, goals, and intermediate operations are completely specified.
14. In deductive reasoning concerning the validity of a syllogism such as If P then Q,
*A. people have little difficulty drawing
logical conclusions from the premise that P is true.
B. people have little difficulty drawing logical conclusions from the premise that Q is true.
C. people have more difficulties testing logical hypothesis presented in concrete, everyday terms.
D. b and c
15. The one person Craig has ever met from New Zealand strikes him as quite friendly and funny. When asked what he would expect to find if he went to New Zealand, Craig says that he would expect the people to be fquite riendly and funny. His judgment seems to have been made using:
A. the availability heuristic.
*B. the representativeness heuristic.
C. the simulation heuristic.
D. anchoring and adjustment.
16. In hypothesis testing, a frequent error is "confirmation bias," which means:
A. testing more examples than are necessary
to confirm the hypothesis.
B. looking for evidence against the hypothesis, rather than considering all evidence equally.
C. assuming that any hypothesis that sounds reasonable with respect to prior knowledge is true.
*D. paying more attention to evidence that is consistent with the hypothesis than to contradictory evidence.
17. Research on framing in risky decision-making indicates that people are most willing to:
*A. take risks to avoid losses.
B. take risks to increase gains.
C. choose options that emphasize the low possibility for loss rather than those that emphasize the high possibility for gain.
D. optimize rather than satisfice.
18. If a child says, "That's a shoe." when she sees a truck, the parent could reasonably assume that the child is:
A. experiencing retrograde amnesia.
*B. exhibiting a problem of reference.
C. fond of shoes.
D. too young to verbalize "truck."
19. The word studying contains __________ morphemes.
20. Which of the following is least likely to affect language comprehension as two people have a conversation over the telephone?
A. timing and intonation
*C. extralinguistic factors
21. The idea that imitation is the method by which children acquire language is contradicted by the observation that:
A. children are not capable of imitation
at the age they acquire language.
B. reinforcement, and not imitation, appears to be the mechanism by which children acquire language.
*C. children utter sentences that they have never heard spoken by the people around them.
D. children who frequently imitate others tend to acquire language faster than children who do not imitate.
22. Research on language acquisition in deaf individuals indicates that:
A. no system of functional communication
can be developed in theabsence of auditory stimuli.
B. sign language is unlike spoken language because it has few morphemes and it lacks syntactical structure.
*C. similar developmental stages exist for the acquisition of sign language in deaf children and spoken language in hearing children.
D. sign language only permits very primitive and basic communication between individuals.
23. Which of the following statements is false?
A. Chimpanzees can learn manual signals
B. Chimpanzees are capable of some propositional thought.
*C. Chimpanzees can learn complex syntactical rules.
D. Chimpanzee vocal tracts cannot produce human speech.
24. A test is considered valid if:
*A. it measures the characteristics
that it was designed to measure.
B. it consistently measures whatever it is designed to measure.
C. scores obtained on the test are precise and accurate.
D. an individual's score on the test remains the same over long periods of time.
25. Most people who are considered mentally retarded are classified as _________ in their degree of mental retardation.
26. The existence of a general intelligence g factor was inferred by Charles Spearman from:
*A. the positive intercorrelations
for tests of different intellectual skills.
B. the fact that different tests tap different specific abilities.
C. the tendency for people to score well on either verbal or mathematical tests, but not both.
D. high reliability coefficients for the results of individual tests.
27. The existence of retarded savants seems to support Gardner's theory of multiple intelligences, yet the data from these individuals does not make the strongest possible case for his position because autistic savants:
A. show skills characteristic of several
intelligences, not just one.
*B. are fewer in number than one would expect if intelligences were truly independent of one another.
C. don't live very long and they do not develop their other intelligences.
D. none of the above
28. The importance of environmental factors in the development of intelligence is illustrated by the fact that:
A. the intelligence scores of adopted
children are correlated with the intelligence scores of their adoptive
B. the intelligence scores of fraternal co-twins are more highly correlated than those of non-twin siblings.
C. the longer children are in impoverished environments the lower their intelligence scores are likely to be.
*D. all of the above
29. In Lewin�s formulation, B = f(P,E):
A. B refers to thoughts, feelings,
B. E refers to the social but not the physical environment.
*C. causality is unidirectional.
D. there are reciprocal causal paths between B and P, and between B and E, but not between P and E.
30. In the doctrine of traits, "predictability" refers to the fact that:
A. different traits tend to be significantly
correlated with each other.
*B. specific behaviors are correlated with generalized traits.
C. behavior is consistent across short and long intervals of time.
D. behavior is stable across a wide variety of different situations.
31. In an Asch-style social pressure experiment, what is the effect of making the judgments difficult (for example, 6.5 vs. 6.25 inches) compared to the effect when the judgments are easy (for example, 6 inches vs. 8 inches)? The real subjects will:
A. yield more, and be more emotionally
*B. yield more, and be less emotionally disturbed.
C. yield less, and be more emotionally disturbed.
D. yield less, and be less emotionally disturbed.
32. The peripheral route to persuasion involves the use of mental shortcuts, or heuristics, to decide whether to accept the message. Which of the following is not likely to be one of these heuristics?
A. the number of arguments that are
*B. the logic or reasonableness of the arguments presented
C. the length of the arguments
D. the expertise of the speaker
33. Studies of the perception of in-groups (us) versus out-groups (them) indicate that we tend:
*A. to see out-group members as being
more similar to each other than are in-group members.
B. to see in-group members as being more similar to each other than are out-group members.
C. to notice the presence of out-group members more rapidly than we notice the presence of in-group members.
D. to see most other people as members of an out-group.
34. We tend to attribute an individual's behavior to dispositional qualities if we believe that:
A. the behavior was heavily influenced
by the demands placed on the individual by the situation.
B. the individual is not aware of the reasons for his or her actions.
*C. the behavior was based on some underlying characteristic or quality of the individual.
D. the individual's behavior was more influenced by emotional than by rational factors.
35. Self-perception theory implies that role-playing would:
A. help a person understand a particular
position, but not affect her attitude toward the position.
*B. lead to increased sympathy for the role played.
C. make a person more aware of the difference between her own position and the one she's playing.
D. a and c
36. The James-Lange theory of emotions asserts that:
A. emotional experience is by definition
private and inaccessible.
B. overt behavior is largely the result of emotional experience.
C. different people classify the same emotions differently.
*D. emotion is the awareness of the bodily changes that result from arousing stimuli.
37. Regret involves an assessment of:
*A. what is and what might have been.
B. what is and what could be.
C. what is and what should be.
D. all of the above
38. Which of the following clearly illustrate(s) or involve(s) pluralistic ignorance?
A. A bystander decides not to help
a car accident victim because there are others present who will undoubtedly
*B. A passerby decides the man lying on the sidewalk is not in trouble because nobody else in the vicinity is stopping to assist him.
C. Nobody in a group of bystanders helps a heart attack victim because they are not sure what to do.
D. all of the above
39. Familiarity may be one factor involved in the relationship between proximity and attraction. We know that:
A. the closer two people live, the
more likely that they will be familiar to one another.
B. familiarity breeds liking.
C. the more often a person encounters most anything, the more he will like it.
*D. all of the above
40. A consistent minority in a group is most likely to influence the __________ of members of the majority. A consistent majority is most likely to influence the __________ of members of the minority.
A. behavior alone; thinking
B. behavior alone; behavior alone
C. thinking; thinking
*D. thinking; behavior alone
41. In the prisoner's dilemma:
A. achieving the best outcome requires
a great deal of trust.
B. each individual can act rationally and yet produce a nonoptimal outcome.
C. the prisoners' behavior is irrational.
*D. a and b
42. The predictive validity of personality inventories (i.e., the correlation between inventory scores and real-world events) is typically:
A. less than +0.10
D. more than +0.70
43. Mahalia and Martin, are each given two tests of fearfulness, both rated on a 10-point scale in which zero means no fear and 10 means maximum fear. In the first tests, both Mahalia and Martin are confronted with a vicious dog. Here, Mahalia's fear rating is 4 points while Martin's is 8 points. In the second test, both Mahalia and Martin are about to take a difficult examination. Here, Mahalia's rating is 4 points while Martin's is 8 points. The results illustrate:
A. situational effects.
*B. differences in personal traits.
C. a person-by-situation interactions.
D. none of the above
44. In his studies of delay of gratification in children, Mischel found that:
A. the length of time that children
could delay a desired reward did not depend on whether the reward was visible
while the child was waiting.
B. children delayed gratification longer if they spent the time imagining the pleasures they would get from the reward.
*C. children delayed gratification longer if they distracted themselves from thinking about the reward.
D. children's ability to delay gratification was not related to thoughts or behaviors during the delay interval, but was highly correlated with personality characteristics such as introversion and responsibility.
45. In evocation:
*A. people change the situation by
their mere presence and appearance.
B. people choose situations that are compatible with their own personalities.
C. personality determines how people will act overtly to change situations.
D. people change the way they think about situations, but not the situations themselves.
46. In the self-fulfilling prophecy:
*A. cognitive transformations lead
to behavioral manipulations.
B. people engage in disconfirmatory hypothesis-testing.
C. people take risks even though the situation can be optimized.
D. people make judgments based on expected values rather than preferred utilities.
47. Clinical evidence alone cannot test the validity of Freud's ideas because:
A. the analyst's training may determine
what he notices.
B. the analyst's behavior may affect the patient's behavior.
C. the analyst can explain the past but cannot predict the future.
*D. all of the above
48. Compared with classical Freudian theory, neo-Freudians:
*A. describe inner conflicts in social
and interpersonal terms.
B. describe conflicts in biological terms.
C. do not put as much emphasis on childhood.
D. suggest that the Oedipal/Electra complex does not occur.
49. Maslow referred to hunger, thirst, and sex as:
A. animal needs.
B. internal needs.
C. external needs.
*D. deficiency needs.
50. Compared with members of individualist societies, members of collectivist societies:
A. are more affected by pressures from
both their in-groups, and from out-groups.
*B. have stronger bonds with their in-group.
C. tend to define their in-groups more broadly, including a wider range of individuals.
D. all of the above