Department of Psychology
Scoring Key and Preliminary Feedback
Choose the best answer to each of the following 100 questions. Questions are drawn from the text and lectures in roughly equal proportions, with the understanding that there is considerable overlap between the two sources. Usually, only one question is drawn from each major section of each chapter of the required readings; again, sometimes this question also draws on material discussed in class. Read the entire exam through before answering any questions: sometimes one question will help you answer another one.
Most questions can be correctly answered in one of two ways: (1) by fact-retrieval, meaning that you remember the answer from your reading of the text or listening to the lecture; or (2) inference, meaning that you can infer the answer from some general principle discussed in the text or lecture. If you cannot determine the correct answer by either of these methods, try to eliminate at least one option as clearly wrong: this maximizes the likelihood that you will get the correct answer by chance. Also, go with your intuitions: if you have actually done the assigned readings and attended the lectures, your "informed guesses" will likely be right more often than they are wrong.
Be sure you are using a red Scantron sheet.
Fill in the appropriate circles with a #2 pencil only.
Be sure you put your name on the front of the red Scantron sheet.
Be sure you put your Student ID# on both sides of the red Scantron sheet.
Preliminary Scoring Key:
Correct answers are marked with an asterisk (*)
Performance on the exam was pretty good.
On the initial scoring, the average score on the exam was 60.14 out of 100, or 60%. This was actually lower than the corresponding percentages for the two midterms. Perhaps the final was a little harder than usual, or perhaps you were a little more frazzled than usual, or (most likely) perhaps a little of both. Recall that my target is an average score between 65-70%.
The item analysis identified a fairly large number of "bad" items, which were rescored correct for all responses:
#12, 30, 40, 44, 49, 56, 62, 65, 72, 80, and 92.
Rescoring these items raised the average to 67.49, or 67%, right in the middle of my target interval.
In addition, the item analysis also revealed four items that were somewhat "anomalous". Even though the majority of the class got each of these items "right", according to the provisional scoring key, their psychometric characteristics were weird enough that I thought we ought to rescore these items, too, correct for all responses:
#39, 50, 81, and 97.
Rescoring these items raised the average a little higher, to 68.54, or 69%.
Given that there was only one "bad" or "anomalous" item on the noncumulative portion, and that most of the "bad" items occurred in the second half of the exam, I suspect that there was more "frazzle" than "difficulty" involved in class performance. Still, performance was pretty good.
The percent of the class getting each item correct, and the item-to-total correlation for each item, is provided below. The final version of this feedback will contain short essays on each item.
1. Which of the following statements is false?
A. Humans are born more immature than most animals.
B. Differentiation begins during embryonic development.
C. The brains of full-term newborns are fully developed.*
D. Adults have fewer synapses that they had at age two.
70% correct, item-to-total rpb = .21.
2. Which of the following is false?
A. A fetus which is exposed to sufficient levels of androgens develops male genitalia.
B. All fetuses with a Y chromosome develop male genitalia.*
C. A fetus which is not exposed to androgens develops female genitalia.
D. Female genitalia are the default in human development.
3. Piaget's approach to cognitive development differs from that of the nativists and empiricists in that:
A. Piaget views the cognitive abilities of the child as fundamentally similar to those of the adult.
B. Piaget regards the child as an adult-like thinker but without the range of associations available to the adult.
C. Piaget sees development as a progression through a series of qualitatively different states of cognitive ability. *
D. Piaget thought basic categories of adult cognition like numbers were inborn.
4. Studies of infants' reactions to partly occluded objects:
A. support Piaget's view that infants have no understanding of object permanence during the sensory-motor stage.
B. indicate that infants as young as four months understand that a partly occluded object (such as a rod) is whole, even though they cannot see all of it. *
C. indicate that infants younger than 8 months do not understand that a partly occluded object (such as a rod) is a single whole rather than two separate objects.
D. both a and c
5. Recent analyses of Piaget's theory of cognitive development have emphasized that:
A. the child's transition from one stage to the next may not be as abrupt as originally proposed by Piaget. *
B. conservation tasks are the only way of evaluating understanding of number in very young children.
C. there are no stages of cognitive development beyond the age of four; once children are about four years of age, their cognitive abilities are qualitatively similar to that of adults.
D. the ability to count is one of the best indicators of the level of cognitive development.
6. Some three-year-old children watch while an experimenter hides a toy dog under one of two containers. The children are told to remember where the dog is until the experimenter returns. Which of the following is not one of the memory strategies we would expect these children to use?
A. Looking at the hiding place and nodding yes.
B. Explicitly rehearsing the location of the toy. *
C. Looking at the wrong container and nodding no.
D. Keeping their hand on the correct container.
7. In assessing cross-cultural differences in cognitive development, it is true that:
A. many such differences are related to the amount of schooling that individuals have.
B. some such differences are artifacts of the procedures we employ to test cognitive development.
C. some such differences come from interpreting nonwestern behavior using our Western ideas.
D. all of the above *
8. Based on Harlow's research with monkeys, what is the most helpful thing you can do for a frightened infant or child?
A. Leave him alone.
B. Offer him something good to eat.
C. Talk to him.
D. Touch or hold him. *
9. In Ainsworth's studies with the so-called Strange Situation, children are classified as securely attached if they:
A. stay close to the mother instead of exploring the toys.
B. continue to play with toys and ignore the mother when she returns.
C. do not show distress when the mother leaves.
D. seem comfortable in the mother's presence, show some distress at her absence, and greet her return enthusiastically. *
10. Cognitive theories, unlike social learning accounts, stress the notion that __________ is an important factor in socialization.
A. a child's understanding *
B. reinforcement the child obtains
C. performance of learned behavior
D. behavior of a model
11. Empathic distress:
A. may lead to helping behavior.
B. may interfere with helping behavior.
C. is irrelevant to helping behavior.
D. a and b*
12. A twin study of personality finds that the correlation for Narcissism is .23 for dizygotic twins and .56 for monozygotic twins. From this we can conclude that:
A. there is only a small genetic component to individual differences in Narcissism.
B. the shared environment is a substantial contributor to individual differences in Narcissism.
C. the nonshared environment accounts for a large proportion of the variance in Narcissism. *
D. all of the above.
49%, .14. A BAD ITEM, though just barely. The difference between MZ and DZ correlations is pretty substantial, so there's probably a moderately large genetic component to Narcissism (whatever that is, not that it matters!). But the fact that MZ twins are far from perfectly correlated indicates that the nonshared environment accounts for a large portion of variance in the trait -- in fact, 44% (1 - MZ)
13. In one study, mothers were introduced to a 6-month-old baby ("Joey" or "Janie") and asked to play with the child. The results indicated that:
A. unlike fathers given the same task, mothers played the same way with the infant whether they thought it was male or female.
B. mothers treated the baby more gently if they thought it was a girl than if they thought it was a boy.*
C. mothers, unlike fathers, were just as likely to give the infant a doll when they thought it was male as when they thought it was female.
D. both b and c
14. Erikson's "identity crisis" refers to:
A. a rare, temporary type of amnesia brought about the the hormonal changes of puberty.
B. attempts to determine what kind of person one really is and wants to be.*
C. attempts to determine one's gender identity.
D. a confusion brought about by the heavy drinking and drug use sometimes seen among adolescents.
15. The first major impetus for the idea that at least some mental disorders are psychogenic came from cases of:
A. psychopathic personality.
B. general paresis.
16. Diagnostic criteria in the DSM-IV emphasize:
A. the underlying causes of the disorder, like the defense mechanisms used to ward off anxiety.
B. the remote causes of the disorder, like genetic predispositions.
C. descriptions of the specific, observable symptoms of various disorders.*
D. psychoanalytic underpinnings of various disorders.
17. Oversensitivity to dopamine may produce schizophrenia because:
A. it results in chronic overstimulation of the brain, leading to cognitive overload.*
B. it interferes with perceptual integration, leading to hallucinations and delusions.
C. it inhibits emotional responsiveness, leading to blunted affect and subsequent social withdrawal.
D. none of the above
18. Abnormal levels of what neurotransmitters are involved in mania and depression?
A. norepinephrine, serotonin*
B. serotonin, tricyclics
C. norepinephrine, MAO inhibitors
D. norepinephrine, tricyclics
19. What is the main difference between generalized anxiety disorder and panic disorder?
A. Panic disorder involves specific objects or events while generalized anxiety disorder does not.
B. Panic disorder is chronic while generalized anxiety disorder is not.
C. Generalized anxiety disorder is brought on by stress while panic disorder is not.
D. Panic disorder is intermittent while generalized anxiety disorder is not.*
20. Narrowing of the coronary arteries in Type A individuals may result from:
A. the continual release of steroids and epinephrine that stimulates the formation of cholesterol deposits on artery walls.*
B. constant muscle tension that compresses artery walls and leads to hypertension.
C. the effects of stress-related hormones on the immune system, leading to damage of the artery walls.
D. none of the above
21. Research supports which of the following statements about antisocial personalities?
A. They experience consistent and strict discipline in childhood.
B. They are cortically overaroused.
C. They have abnormal EEG recordings.*
D. They are more likely to have alcoholic mothers than other individuals.
22. When antidepressant drugs are given to nondepressed research participants, these individuals experience:
B. little or no change in mood. *
D. heightened levels of energy.
23. Assume that the concordance rate for anxiety disorder in identical twins is 53%. Knowing nothing else, you can conclude that:
A. there is a substantial genetic contribution to anxiety disorder.
B. factors shared by different children in the same family shared environment are important determinants of anxiety disorder.
C. the individual's unique experiences are an important determinant of anxiety disorder. *
D. none of the above.
29%, .31. The correct answer isn't A because you don't know what the DZ concordance is. If the DZ concordance is also 53%, then there would be no genetic contribution at all. If the DZ concordance rate were 10%, that would suggest a substantial genetic contribution. But because the MZ concordance rate is (far) below 100%, you know that there is a substantial contribution from the one thing that DZ twins do not share in common, which is the nonshared environment.
24. What role does the therapist play in cognitive therapy?
A. The therapist is merely a sounding board for the client who is provided a safe means of confronting sensitive issues.
B. The therapist attempts to cause the client to have an anxiety attack in a setting where it can be controlled and studied.
C. The therapist plays the role of a sympathetic listener who asks questions to show the client that certain thoughts are irrational. *
D. The therapist asks a series of very personal questions to desensitize the client and facilitate discussion of sometimes embarrassing problems.
25. Which of the following best describes the Dodo Bird verdict?
A. Only therapies that deal with the underlying cause of the problem can be effective.
B. Clients who come to a therapist with a hostile attitude are less likely to be helped than those who come with a positive attitude.
C. The differences between various psychotherapies and their effectiveness is very slight or nonexistent. *
D. Therapies that force the client to confront personal problems are the most effective.
26. In animals, many social interactions depend largely on __________ forms of communication.
A. innate *
27. Research using the comparative approach has revealed that:
A. many, but not all, types of animals have REM sleep.*
B. many, but not all, types of animals have dreams.
C. all types of animals have REM sleep.
D. all types of animals have dreams.
28. The idea that dreams are processes that go on inside the head:
A. suggests that neurological techniques are needed to study their content.
B. isn't common among preschoolers.*
C. is an outgrowth of the psychoanalytic methods of Freud.
D. suggests they are not influenced by external events prior to, or during, the dream itself.
29. The Doctrine of Mentalism states that:
A. the individual's behavior is to be explained in terms of his or her beliefs, feelings, and desires. *
B. because mental states cannot be publicly observed, psychology must be a science of behavior.
C. because the brain is the physical basis of mind, psychological principles are ultimately reducible to biological laws.
D. emotion and motivation cause people to behave irrationally.
30. A cat with the limbic system intact but with massive damage to the cerebral cortex would most likely be:
A. unable to walk or regulate its body temperature.
B. unmotivated to eat or drink, but be able to swallow if food or water was placed in its mouth.
C. able to walk, chew, swallow, and track moving objects with its eyes but be unable to coordinate these activities into acts.
D. able to do all of the above things, but be inept when faced with a tactical challenge such as a fight with another cat.*
32%, .15. A BAD ITEM. With an intact limbic system, the cat can still engage in emotional behavior, and it won't have any problem with voluntary movement or any aspect of homeostatic self-regulation. with an intact cerebellum, motor coordination would still be possible. But with a damaged cerebral cortex, it will be impaired on the "rational" abilities involved in planning strategy and tactics for a fight.
31. A right-handed stroke victim has a slight paralysis of his right arm and leg, as well as a severe speech defect. He seems to be able to understand what is said to him, but all he can say is "tan." His brain damage is probably centered in the:
A. right frontal region.
B. right temporal region.
C. right parietal region.
D. left frontal region.*
32. A right-handed, split-brain patient is briefly shown a picture of an ashtray in the right visual field. When asked to say what he saw, he:
A. says "an ashtray."*
B. cannot produce the correct name, but will pantomime use of the object.
C. cannot provide an answer and only knows that it is some object.
D. cannot provide an answer and has no idea what, if anything, was shown.
33. A neurological patient speaks slowly and ungrammatically, but her utterances make sense in the context in which they are spoken. This individual most likely has suffered brain damage in the:
A. left parietal lobe.
B. right parietal lobe.
C. left frontal lobe. *
D. right frontal lobe.
34. Negative feedback __________ the original behavior.
D. either b or c*
35. When identical twins are equally overfed:
A. they gain about the same amount of weight, but store the weight in different places.
B. they gain about the same amount of weight, and store the weight in the same places.*
C. they gain different amounts of weight, and store weight gains in different places.
D. they gain different amounts of weight, but store any weight gains in the same places.
36. Activation of the sympathetic nervous system inevitably leads to:
C. accelerated heart rate.*
D. a and c
37. Which of the following is the best measure of the biological "fitness" of an animal?
A. its longevity
B. the number of times it succeeds in mating
C. the number of offspring it produces
D. the number of its grandchildren *
38. Physical battles between animals usually end when one of the combatants:
A. is dead, or too badly injured to continue.
B. communicates submission with an appeasement display. *
C. intimidates the other with a threat signal.
D. finds himself in his own territory.
39. Injections of testosterone into humans with abnormally low testosterone levels:
A. cause increased sex drive in heterosexual men.
B. cause increased sex drive in homosexual men.
C. cause increased sex drive in women.
D. all of the above*
87%, -.04. Not a bad item, in fact, almost everyone got it right, but given the negative item-to-total correlation, certainly an ANOMALOUS one -- enough to rescore this item correct for all responses.
40. After 40 CS-US pairings, presentation of the CS elicits 20 drops of saliva. The response is then extinguished so that the CS elicits no salivation. On the following day, the CS is presented again. One may expect about __________ drops of saliva to presentation of the CS.
B. 10 *
40%, .11. A BAD ITEM. This was about spontaneous recovery after extinction, so the answer was clearly not 0. The spontaneously recovered response is always less than the final CR, so 30 was definitely out, as was 20. 10 was the only reasonable response remaining.
41. The most important distinction between classical conditioning and operant conditioning is that in operant conditioning:
A. reinforcement is contingent upon responding.*
B. the experimenter controls the response by presenting the stimuli.
C. the ANS rather than the CNS is primarily involved.
D. reinforcement is pleasant rather than aversive.
42. Which of the following is a cognitive interpretation of classical conditioning?
A. CSs are associated with USs and their elicited URs.
B. CSs produce expectancies of USs.*
C. Pavlov's demonstrations were really of latent learning.
D. S-R bonds are formed because the US acts as a reinforcer.
43. Studies of taste-aversion learning (bait shyness) do not challenge which assumption of traditional stimulus-response (S-R) theories of learning?
A. association by contiguity.
C. the empty organism.
D. the passive organism. *
44. In the phenomenon of sensory preconditioning, two neutral stimuli, such as a light and a bell, are presented together: light followed by bell, light followed by bell, light followed by bell, etc. Then, the bell is presented together with food: bell followed by food, bell followed by food, bell followed by food, until the organism salivates to the bell before the food is presented. Finally, the experimenter presents the light alone, and observes that the organism salivates to the light as well as the tone. Such an outcome would be inconsistent with the concept of:
A. stimulus generalization.
B. association by contingency.
C. the law of effect. *
D. the two-process theory of avoidance learning.
17%, .07. A BAD ITEM. I never discussed sensory preconditioning (it's discussed in the Lecture Supplements), but I was hoping that you could reason to the answer from general principles. The light was never paired with the food, so it was never reinforced. So, the fact that the light acquires the power to elicit a CR is inconsistent with the law of effect. Most of you went for B, but the effect isn't really inconsistent with association by contingency: light predicts bell, and bell predicts food, so light predicts bell. What the effect is inconsistent with, perhaps, is association by contiguity, but that wasn't one of the response options.
45. Most people can just detect the difference between 6 spoonfuls of sugar in a gallon of water and 5 spoonfuls of sugar in a gallon of water. If Weber's law holds, these same people should be just able to tell 30 spoonfuls from __________ per gallon.
46. The place theory of pitch is inconsistent with the finding that:
A. high-frequency tones cause peak deformations close to the oval window, while tones of lower frequencies have their peaks farther away from this structure.
B. for high frequency tones, the site of peak deformation along the basilar membrane does not correspond to stimulus characteristics.
C. normal adults can discriminate the frequencies of tones considerably higher than 500 hertz.
D. for low frequency sounds, the basilar membrane is deformed almost equally along its entire length. *
47. The negative afterimage of a greenish-yellow square is:
A. a violet-colored square.*
B. a yellow-orange square.
C. a black circle.
D. a fog of red which occupies the entire visual field.
48. In basketball it is easier to see how far away the basket is if you: 1) use both eyes and 2) move your head and body with respect to the basket. These two cues to depth are called:
A. binocular disparity and texture gradients.
B. interposition and binocular disparity.
C. texture gradients and apparent (stroboscopic) movement.
D. binocular disparity and motion parallax.*
49. Under what conditions will the world seem to jump to the right?
A. You move your eyes to the left.
B. You move your eyes to the right.
C. Your eye muscles are paralyzed and you try to move your eyes to the left.*
D. Your eye muscles are paralyzed and you try to move your eyes to the right.
46%, .13. A BAD ITEM. Remember that, according to Gibson, an important cue for vision is the discrepancy between information provided by retinal motion and information provided by egomotion. If you try to move your eyes to the left, your visual system "expects" that the image on your retina will move to the right. Too hard. Sorry.
50. The principle of maximum likelihood suggests that:
A. we use proximal stimuli to make a good guess about distal stimuli.
B. stimuli that are close together probably go with the same object.
C. regions that are the same in texture usually go with the same object.
D. all of the above*
75%, -.10. AN ANOMALOUS ITEM. The principle of maximum likelihood is that we perceive the object that is most likely to give rise to the pattern of proximal stimulation. All three response options, A-C, have to do with "likelihood" -- as indicated by the words "good guess", "probably", and "usually".
51. In a famous painting by Magritte, a woman is portrayed riding a horse through a forest. Sometimes the figure obscures a portion of some trees, sometimes the trees obscure a portion of the figure. The effect of the picture is created by an _____ cue for depth or distance.
A. ocular, binocular.
B. ocular, monocular
C. optical, binocular
D. optical, monocular*
52. In the moon illusion, the moon on the horizon looks larger than the moon at zenith because:
A. the visual system compensates for cues to motion constancy.
B. the observer unconsciously corrects the size of the retinal image to take account of distance cues. *
C. all of the information necessary for accurate perception is provided by the proximal stimulus, viewed against its background.
D. the lack of distance cues disrupts the perceptual cycle.
53. Two groups hear a list of 20 unrelated items and are tested for immediate recall a few seconds after they hear the last word. In group I, the items are presented at the rate of 1 second per item; in group II, they are presented at 2 seconds per item. We would expect:
A. the same primacy effect for both groups; a greater recency effect for group I.
B. the same primacy effect for both groups; a greater recency effect for group II.
C. the same recency effect in both groups; a greater primacy effect for group I.
D. the same recency effect for both groups; a greater primacy effect for group II.*
54. The more elaborate the rehearsal:
A. the more confused a person is likely to be at the time of retrieval.
B. the greater the chance for proactive interference.
C. the greater the likelihood of retrieval.*
D. the less is the need for chunking.
55. Returning home after many years causes memories to resurface. In this case, home serves as:
A. an icon.
B. a retrieval cue. *
C. a mnemonic device.
D. a memory chunk.
56. Forgetting by interference involves the _____ stage of _____ memory.
A. encoding; semantic
B. storage; procedural
C. storage; working
D. retrieval; episodic*
31%, .12. A BAD ITEM. Interference, whether proactive or retroactive, occurs among items available in memory storage. Accordingly, it can't involve the encoding stage, because then the items interfered with wouldn't be available; and it can't involve the storage stage, for the same reason. Therefore, it must involve the retrieval stage. Interference at the point of retrieval can occur in semantic as well as episodic memory, but that wasn't one of the options.
57. Studies of priming effects show that amnesic patients can:
A. acquire new episodic memories, but not new semantic memories.
B. learn from experience, but cannot consciously access what they have learned. *
C. perform adequately on long-term memory tasks, provided that they have enough practice.
D. acquire new declarative memories, but not new procedural memories.
58. Which of the following cases is most on the borderline between a symbolic and an analogical representation?
A. the Roman numeral III*
B. the green light on a traffic signal
C. the words "Her Royal Highness," meaning Queen Elizabeth II
D. an aerial photograph of Manhattan, Brooklyn, and Queens
59. Based on what you know about hierarchical networks in human thoughts, to which of the following statements would a research participant take longest to respond true or false?
A. Is a maple a tree?
B. Is a table furniture?
C. Is a tomato a fruit?*
D. Is a rose a flower?
60. Which of the following statements is false?
A. Computers are better at solving well-defined than ill-defined problems.
B. Humans are better than computers at solving ill-defined problems.
C. Solutions to well-defined problems are generally difficult to evaluate.*
D. Ill-defined problems can be redefined through the use of subgoals.
61. In the aftermath of the terrorist attacks of September 11, 2001, a number of adherents to the Sikh religion, who wear turbans as part of their religious discipline, were detained for questioning. In so doing, the authorities were probably relying on the _____ heuristic to make their judgments.
A. representativeness. *
D. anchoring and adjustment
62. Simon's notion of "bounded rationality" means that:
A. our emotional and motivational states prevent us from thinking logically.
B. our ability to reason logically is constrained by limits on human information processing capacity. *
C. most human judgments are made under conditions of uncertainty.
D. the way a problem is framed alters the reference point against which choices are evaluated.
32%, .07. A BAD ITEM, but Simon argues that human rationality is bounded by limitations on information-processing capacity. Most human judgments are made under conditions of uncertainty, but algorithms aren't applicable under those circumstances anyway. And framing effects are more relevant to Kahneman and Tversky's "prospect theory" of judgment and decision making than to Simon's concept of bounded rationality. The role of emotion and motivation might be relevant to a Freudian, psychoanalytic critique of human rationality, but again it's not what Simon had in mind.
63. The word cowboys contains __________ morphemes.
64. Reinforcement theory is particularly poor in explaining how:
A. children say one word rather than another when referring to a particular object.
B. children learn to take turns in conversation.
C. children learn grammar even though they are seldom corrected for mistakes.*
D. children talk for no reason except to get attention.
65. Studies of deaf children with hearing parents who are not taught ASL are important because they demonstrate that:
A. both language basics and language elaborations like complex syntax are invented without the need of models.
B. using words and syntax to organize thoughts is a basic property of human minds.*
C. without models, children will not exhibit even the basics of language.
D. such children are quite similar to birds that do not hear their species' songs until they are adults.
27%, -.08. A BAD ITEM, and maybe an anomalous one at that, perhaps because the referent of the pronoun "they" wasn't clear. Sorry. Anyway, there aren't too many of these these kids, but they're interesting because they invent for themselves a kind of makeshift language with manual "words" and syntactical rules just like English or ASL or any other language. A lot of you went for A, but these kids do have language basics. They don't necessarily have language elaborations, such as complex syntax, but the fact that there are words and syntax at all, in the absence of any kind of model, indicates that symbols and grammars are deeply engrained in the human mind.
66. In a laboratory study, research participants from Rutgers saw a student (call him A) make a choice. Some research participants were told that A was also from Rutgers, while other research participants were told that A was from Princeton. The study found that research participants:
A. who thought A was from Rutgers believed that most Rutgers students would make the same choice A had made.
B. who thought A was from Princeton believed that most Princeton students would make the same choice A had.
C. who thought A was from Rutgers drew no inferences about the behavior of other Rutgers students from A's choice.
D. both b and c*
67. Game show contestants who lose often attribute their loss to poor choice or bad luck in the particular questions that were asked. This is an example of:
A. immunity to the fundamental attribution error.
B. self-serving attribution bias. *
C. attention to dispositional factors.
D. all of the above
68. The communication hypothesis of facial expressions of emotions is supported by the observation that:
A. facial expressions occur mostly when we are in the presence of others and make eye contact with them. *
B. there are many more distinct facial expressions than there are distinct emotional states.
C. we tend to interpret the facial expressions of others as calls for action rather than as read-outs of their internal emotional states.
D. all of the above
69. Diffusion of responsibility refers to the fact that:
A. people are more likely to intervene in an emergency if they alone will not be responsible for the results of that intervention.
B. people are less likely to act in an emergency if there are others present, because they feel less responsible for taking action. *
C. when others do not act in an emergency, the bystander is less likely to define the situation as an emergency requiring action.
D. people are likely to follow the lead of a single dominant individual in the group.
70. Studies of bystander intervention illustrate the influence of:
A. personality factors on behavior.
B. situational factors on behavior. *
C. behavior on the behaving person.
D. cognitive transformations on the individual's perception of the situation.
71. The "mere exposure" effect:
A. shows that attitudes change only after deep processing of the attitudinal object.
B. illustrates the effect of the situation on perceived attractiveness. *
C. illustrates the principle that "opposites attract".
D. shows how negative characteristics come to be associated with members of minority groups.
72. According to Zajonc, the effect of others on performance will depend on:
A. whether the dominant response is correct or incorrect with respect to the task being performed. *
B. the difference in probability between the dominant response and other nondominant responses.
C. the number of nondominant responses available in that situation.
D. the total number of responses involved in the task to be performed.
37%, .20. A BAD ITEM, though just barely. The presence of others always increases the probability of the dominant response. The important thing is whether the dominant response is correct in that situation. If it's correct, the presence of others effectively increases performance. If it's incorrect, the presence of others effectively decreases performance.
73. In some situations (e.g., fire in a crowded theater), crowds may panic and rush for the exits, resulting in injury and loss of life. According to the cognitive interpretation of crowd behavior, panic occurs when:
A. members of the crowd experience intense fear.
B. members of the crowd believe that all escape routes are blocked.
C. members of the crowd believe that escape routes are limited or are closing. *
D. all of the above
74. Dr. Williams has developed a paper-and-pencil test to assess fear of heights. He gives the test to 50 research participants, whose scores range from 0 (no fear) to 100 (intense fear). He finds that scores on the test have a correlation of only -0.25 with the physiological measures of fear. Two months later, research participants take the papers-and-pencil test again. The correlation between scores on this second paper-and-pencil test and scores on the first paper-and-pencil test is 0.95. This information suggests that Dr. Williams test is:
A. reliable, and probably valid.
B. probably invalid, but reliable.*
C. unreliable and invalid.
D. valid, and therefore reliable.
32%, .31. The test-retest correlation of .95 shows that the test is highly reliable, at least in terms of test-retest reliability (there are other forms of reliability). But the correlation of "only" -.25 suggests that it's not nearly as valid as it is reliable. Moreover, note the sign attached to the correlation, which means that high scores on the test are negatively correlated with physiological signs of fear. Since high scores on the test are supposed to indicate high levels of fear, yet they are associated with low physiological signs of fear, the test is probably invalid.
75. What proportion of the mentally retarded are able to learn sixth-grade academic skills by their late teens?
A. 0 percent
B. 10 percent
C. 50 percent
D. 90 percent *
76. The lack of transfer of mental strategies for mentally retarded persons and children is because these individuals do not:
A. have sufficiently developed verbal skills.
B. develop plans for when to use their strategies. *
C. reason analogically.
D. form complex cognitive components.
77. The best available predictor of future behavior in a particular situation is:
A. the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory.
B. the Wechsler Adult Intelligence Test.
C. the California Psychological Inventory.
D. past behavior in similar situations. *
78. Critics of trait theory argue that:
A. people's personalities seem stable because we repeatedly see them in the same social settings.
B. our belief that there are consistent personality traits is an error of inference.
C. traits are in the eye of the beholder rather than in the personality of the individual beheld.
D. all of the above *
79. In comparing the views of contemporary social learning theorists with those of behaviorists and trait theorists, social learning theorists:
A. are much more interested in cognitive processes than behaviorists or trait theorists.
B. are like behaviorists, in that they emphasize the role of situational factors in behavior.
C. are unlike trait theorists, in that they do not assume that personality attributes are built-in or genetic.
D. all of the above *
80. In Sigmund Freud's view, the demands of __________ are essentially infantile, unconscious, and irrational.
A. the id
B. the superego
C. both a and b *
D. none of the above
7%, -.22. Wowie zowie, was this A BAD ITEM! That's what I get when I ask a tricky question. Yes, the id is infantile, unconscious, and irrational, but so, according to Freud, is the superego. This is because the child has internalized parental and societal rewards and punishments, and responds to them as unthinkingly as he or she responds to instinctual urges toward sex and aggression. The ego is the adult, conscious, rational "part" or function of the mind.
81. Someone with empathic understanding:
A. genuinely understands what a person feels and feels it with him. *
B. tends to view others positively.
C. is sympathetic only with regard to specific experiences.
D. all of the above
54%, -.02. AN ANOMALOUS ITEM. Still, most of you got this right, but a lot of you went for D. In Rogers' humanistic theory of personality and psychotherapy, empathic understanding (A) goes hand in hand with unconditional positive regard (D). It's not clear that people with empathic understanding view others positively. They are perfectly capable of viewing others negatively, but what they always do is understand what a person feels, whether that feeling is positive or negative. And they try to be sympathetic even with the negative things, understanding them from the "evildoer's" point of view -- that's what unconditional positive regard is all about.
82. Cross-cultural studies of child-rearing patterns show that:
A. agricultural societies tend to stress conformity and responsibility in their child-rearing practices.
B. in American society, child-rearing practices seem to vary as a function of social class.
C. both a and b *
D. none of the above
83. Studies of the effects of literacy on thought processes exemplify the study of development from the _____ point of view.
84. Parents of identical twins often go to great lengths to treat them differently. This would be an example of a _____ effect on development.
D. family context
85. According to a "Darwinian" analysis of the family microenvironment, latterborn children should be higher than their firstborn siblings on:
D. openness to experience. *
86. Elaborate delusional systems are especially common in persons diagnosed with:
A. manic depression.
B. multiple personalities.
C. catatonic schizophrenia.
D. paranoid schizophrenia.*
87. A revised learned helplessness model attributes depression to an attributional style that attributes negative events to:
A. stable, global, and internal causes.*
B. unstable, local, and internal causes.
C. stable, local, and external causes.
D. stable, global, and external causes.
21%, .35. A hard one, but still a good item. According to Abramson and Alloy's revision of Seligman's learned helplessness model of depression, uncontrollable negative events only lead to depression if the person takes responsibility for them -- saying, in effect, "bad things happen to me because I'm a bad person (internal), bad in all ways (global), and bad all the time (stable).
88. An individual is diagnosed with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) rather than acute stress disorder if:
A. the reaction to the stressful event is dissociation.
B. the post-traumatic symptoms include waking flashbacks to the stressful event.
C. the reaction to the stressful event persists for at least one month.*
D. all of the above
18%, .40. A difficult item, but the difference between an acute and a chronic psychiatric disorder, and PTSD is by definition a chronic reaction to a stressful event, is always one of temporal duration.
89. Antipsychotic drugs are not the perfect treatment for schizophrenia. For example:
A. because of their side effects, many patients do not reliably take their medications. *
B. about 97 percent of patients taking medication regularly have further outbreaks of the illness requiring hospitalization.
C. antipsychotics are ineffective in about 82 percent of schizophrenic patients.
D. all of the above
90. What is the basic goal of systematic desensitization?
A. The client learns to face his fear regardless of how scared it makes him feel.
B. The client associates a state of relaxation with fear-evoking stimuli. *
C. The client systematically overcomes a fear by coming in contact with it every day.
D. The client forms a series of visual images that can be used during a fear-evoking situation.
91. Legal and economic concerns have changed the way psychotherapists work. Therapists are now more likely to:
A. continue therapy longer in order to minimize the risks of relapse.
B. use briefer problem-focused therapies. *
C. focus on prosocial aspects of therapy, such as insight and emotional control.
D. none of the above
92. In the former Soviet Union, political dissidents were often diagnosed as schizophrenics and incarcerated in mental hospitals. Such behavior would seem to involve the application of the _____ criterion for deviance.
37%, .14. A BAD ITEM. The compliance criterion involves deviation from societal norms. If you didn't think that the Soviet Union was the best of all possible worlds, Soviet authorities were likely to diagnose you as schizophrenic and confine you to a mental hospital. Along with internal exile to Siberia, such diagnoses were a very popular means of controlling political dissidents.
93. The classification system in most recent editions of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual for Mental Disorders (DSM) is based on:
A. etiology or origins of mental illness
B. defining symptoms of syndromes
C. characteristic symptoms of syndromes*
D. underlying pathologies of anatomy and physiology
94. According to the diathesis-stress model of the etiology of mental illness:
A. either diathesis or stress are sufficient to produce an episode of mental illness, though neither is necesssary.
B. both diathesis and stress are necessary to produce an episode of mental illness, though neither is sufficient. *
C. diatheses are biological factors that precipitate an acute episode of mental illness in individuals under stress.
D. stresses are psychological factors that predispose an individual to experience mental illness under conditions of an appropriate diathesis.
95. Which of the following is an aspect of the scientific method that is necessary for the development of reliable and useful claims about psychological events?
A. systematic and objective testing of ideas*
B. the use of psychophysical measures
C. an avoidance of hypothetical thinking
D. all of the above
96. Jeffrey conducted a study to investigate the effects of room color on mood in the elderly. However, he did not take into consideration the possibility that some of his research participants were using medications that influenced their moods. In Jeffrey's study, this uncontrolled factor is best referred to as a:
A. placebo effect.
C. controlling variable.
D. none of the above
97. Benny conducted an undergraduate research study using only a few participants consisting of his closest friends. Benny's research can be said to have:
A. low internal validity.
B. high external validity.
C. low external validity.*
D. high internal validity.
89%, .00. AN ANOMALOUS ITEM. Benny's experimental design might be good or bad, and that would bear on it's internal validity, but you don't know anything about that. What you do know is that is sample is small and nonrandom, which would render his study low in external validity.
98. In the distribution, 1 1 2 2 3 3 3 4 4 5 5, number 3 is the:
D. all of the above*
99. If a distribution has zero variability, then:
A. the mean equals the median.
B. the mode equals the mean.
C. all of the scores are identical.
D. all of the above*
79%, .28. If a distribution has zero variability, then there's no variability, which means that all the scores are the same, which means that the mean, median, and mode are all identical. Watch out, though, because the mean, the median, and the mode are all identical in the so-called "normal" or "bell-shaped" distribution, too. But the normal distribution has lots of variability, as indicated by the rule of "67, 95, and 99" (see Lecture Supplement).
100. Behavioral scientists generally regard a difference between experimental and control groups as "statistically reliable" or "statistically significant" if the difference between the means is:
A. less than two standard deviations.
B. at least two standard deviations. *
C. above 70.
D. between one and two standard deviations.
55%, .38. There's no absolute standard for statistical signfiicance, but the convention amounts to a difference between the means of at least 2 SDs.
Retain this exam, along with a record of your answers.
A provisional answer key will be posted to the course website by 3:00 PM today.
The exam will be provisionally scored to identify and eliminate bad items.
The exam will then be rescored with bad items keyed correct for all responses.
Be sure that you have created an account on the course website.
This is how we will be able to give you notice of your grade.
The revised answer key, and comments on the exam items, will be posted
on the course website when grades are posted.