Department of Psychology
In the exam that follows, correct answers are marked with an asterisk (*).
he exam was initially scored to identify bad items. There were several such items where less than 50% of students got the correct answer, and performance on the item did not correlate significantly with performance on the rest of the exam:
Items # 1, 22, 30, 35, 39, 40, 46, 58, 73, 74, 86, 87, and 97.
These items were then rescored as correct for all responses.
n addition, there was a typographical error on the preliminary scoring key. The correct answer to Item #27 is of course A, not B.
On the initial scoring of the exam, the mean score was 63.95(SD = 11.51), or 64% correct. This is slightly lower than my preferred range of exam scores in Psychology 1, which is an average score of 65-70% correct. Rescoring the bad and miskeyed items raised the mean score to 76.28 (SD = 11.11), or 76% correct, which is very good indeed.
No other items will be rescored.
The scoring key below provides the correct answers to each item, along with a statistical analysis and explanation of the rescored items.
Choose the best answer to each of the following 100 questions. Questions are drawn from the text and lectures in roughly equal proportions, with the understanding that there is considerable overlap between the two sources. Usually, only one question is drawn from each major section of each chapter of the required readings; again, sometimes this question also draws on material discussed in class. Read the entire exam through before answering any questions: sometimes one question will help you answer another one.
Most questions can be correctly answered in one of two ways: (1) by fact-retrieval, meaning that you remember the answer from your reading of the text or listening to the lecture; or (2) inference, meaning that you can infer the answer from some general principle discussed in the text or lecture. If you cannot determine the correct answer by either of these methods, try to eliminate at least one option as clearly wrong: this maximizes the likelihood that you will get the correct answer by chance. Also, go with your intuitions: if you have actually done the assigned readings and attended the lectures, your "informed guesses" will likely be right more often than they are wrong.
Be sure you are using a red Scantron sheet.
Fill in the appropriate circles with a #2 pencil only.
Be sure you put your name on the front of the red Scantron sheet.
Be sure you put your Student ID# on both sides of the red Scantron sheet.
Indicate Exam 003 on the reverse side of the red Scantron sheet.
Retain this exam, along with a record of your answers.
Noncumulative Portion Includes Items 1-30.
1. The number of neural interconnections
A. increases dramatically after birth.
B. decreases after age two.
C. is constant through infancy and childhood.
D. a and b.*
A total of 44% of the class got this item correct, and the item-to-total correlation, rpb, was only .19. Therefore, it was classified as a bad item. It rurns out that the answer to this question is a little complicated.
- As far as the cerebral cortex is concerned, we're probably born with all the neurons we're going to get. The major change postnatally is in the the number, or the density, of interconnections among neurons -- a process called synaptogenesis, by which the axons of presynaptic neurons increasingly link to the dendrites of postsynaptic neurons. Viewed at the neuronal level, the big effect of normal development is the proliferation of neural interconnections, including an increase in dendritic arborization (like a tree sprouting branches) and the extension of axons (so as to make contact with more dendrites). So Option A is clearly correct.
- At the same time, but at a different rate, there is also some pruning, or elimination, of synapses -- a process by which neural connectivity is fine-tuned. So, for example early in development there is considerable overlap in the projections of neurons from the two eyes into the primary visual cortex; but after pruning, the two eyes project largely to two quite different segments of cortex, known as "ocular dominance columns". This pruning can continue well into childhood and adolescence. The 7th edition of Gleitman's text makes no reference to pruning (at least so far as I can discover). But still a good argument can be made for Option B as well.
- Neurons die. Fortunately, we are born with a lot of neurons, and unless neuronal death is accelerated by brain damage or something like Alzheimer's disease, neurons die relatively slowly. When neurons die their connections obviously disappear with them, which strengthens the case for Option B.
- The connections between neurons can also be altered by learning. Think of long-term potentiation. But LTP doesn't change the number of neural interconnections. What changes is the likelihood of synaptic transmission across a synapse that has already been established. So this doesn't provide additional support for Option A (which, remember, is already well supported).
- LTP is an example of a broader phenomenon called functional plasticity.
- Violinists, who finger the strings with their left hands, show much larger cortical area in that portion of (right) parietal cortex that controls finger movements of the left hand, compared to nonmusicians.
- If one finger of a hand is amputated, that portion of somatosensory cortex which would ordinarily receive input from that finger obviously doesn't do so any longer. But what can happen is that the somatosensory cortex can reorganize itself, so that this portion of the brain can now receive stimulation from fingers that are adjacent to the amputated one.
- And if two fingers are sewn together, so that when one moves the other one does also, the areas of somatosensory cortex that would be devoted to each finger will now overlap.
- In each case, though, the physical connections between neurons -- the number of terminal fibers synapsing on dendrites -- don't appear to change. Much as with LTP, what changes is the likelihood of synaptic transmission across synapses that have already been established. So, again, this fact doesn't provide additional support for Option A (which doesn't really need any additional support).
- Finally, there's problem of neurogenesis. Traditional neuroscientific doctrine has held that new neurons can regenerate in the peripheral nervous system (as, for example, when a severed limb has been reattached), but not in the central nervous system. However, increasing evidence has been obtained for neurogenesis in central nervous system as well. This research is highly controversial (though I, personally, believe it to be true), but if confirmed it would provide basis for experimental "stem-cell" therapies for spinal-cord injuries (think of Christopher Reeve). If naturally occurring neurogenesis occurs at a rate greater than the rate of natural neuronal death, and if these new neurons could actually be integrated into pre-existing neural networks, that would supply yet an additional mechanism for a net increase in new physical interconnections between neurons -- but so far the evidence in both respects is ambiguous.
2. What is the difference between a sensitive period and a critical period?
A. A critical period applies to negative environmental influence, while a sensitive period applies to positive environmental influence.
B. A critical period applies to positive environmental influence, while a sensitive period applies to negative environmental influence.
C. A sensitive period is more flexible than a critical period.*
D. A critical period refers to genetic influences, while a sensitive period refers to environmental influences.
60% correct, rpb = .33.
3. According to Piaget, an infant gradually develops the notion that things exist independently of his own senses. This understanding is known as
C. object permanence.*
4. Studies of infants' understanding of occlusion of one object by another suggest that
A. the infant understands that the parts of objects are connected even when hidden.*
B. the infant must have extensive experience with overlapping objects before understanding that the parts of objects remain connected even when hidden.
C. infants at four months of age are not surprised when a rod hidden behind a block is shown to be made up of two separate parts.
D. four-month-old infants lack a sense of object permanence.
5. Recent analyses of Piaget's theory of cognitive development have argued that
A. the child's transition from one stage to the next may not be as abrupt as originally proposed by Piaget.*
B. conservation tasks are the only way of evaluating understanding of number in very young children.
C. there are no stages of cognitive development beyond the age of four; once children are about four years of age, their cognitive abilities are qualitatively similar to those of adults.
D. children pass traditional conservation of number tasks shortly after they demonstrate an ability to count.
6. Studies that have attempted to train young children to use rehearsal in a memory task have found that the children
A. were not able to learn to rehearse.
B. successfully rehearsed on the task for which they were trained, but did not spontaneously apply the newly learned strategy to other tasks.*
C. rehearsed on the task for which they were trained, but their efforts were not successful, so they gave up on rehearsal.
D. successfully rehearsed on the task for which they were trained and spontaneously applied the newly learned strategy to other tasks.
7. Which of the following statements is true?
A. Both crystallized and fluid intelligence remain relatively stable across the life span.
B. While crystallized intelligence remains relatively stable across the life span, fluid intelligence begins to decline in the 30s.*
C. While fluid intelligence remains relatively stable across the life span, crystallized intelligence begins to decline in the 30s.
D. Both crystallized and fluid intelligence begin to decline in the 30s.
8. Bowlby argues that infants
A. form attachments in order to satisfy their basic biological needs, especially hunger and warmth.
B. find social interactions intrinsically rewarding.*
C. seek social interaction only when they are hungry or thirsty.
D. outgrow their attachments by the time they are able to move around by themselves.
9. According to Ainsworth, the reaction of insecurely attached (anxious/resistant) infants in the Strange Situation is to show
A. little distress when mother leaves but no pleasure or relief when she returns.
B. considerable distress and panic when mother leaves and great enthusiasm when she returns.
C. considerable distress and panic when mother leaves but emotional ambivalence when she returns.*
D. no concern when mother leaves and no response when she returns.
10. Studies of the effects of breast-feeding and toilet training on child development indicate that
A. breast-feeding is related to attachment behavior but toilet training seems to have no clear connection with later development.
B. toilet training seems to be modestly related to moral development but breast-feeding does not seem to play any clear role in later development.
C. both seem to play at least some role in the socialization of the young child.
D. contrary to Freud's claims, neither of these aspects of childrearing seems to play any role in the socialization of the young child.*
11. According to Kohlberg's view of moral development,
A. the earliest form of moral reasoning tends to be based on fears of punishment or the desire for personal gain.*
B. moral reasoning based on personal principles is followed by moral reasoning based on social or cultural standards of acceptable behavior.
C. morality based on personal fears or desires develops later than moral reasoning based on social conventions.
D. All of the above.
12. If we look at sex differences in aggression, we find that
A. male infants are more irritable and active than females.
B. at age two, boys engage in more and rougher play-fighting across a variety of cultures.
C. females engage in more relational than physical aggression.
D. All of the above.*
13. According to Erikson, the major goal of adolescent development is
A. learning to deal with new sexuality.
B. learning to think abstractly.
C. distinguishing oneself from younger siblings.
D. developing a sense of identity.*
14. Twin studies of the "Big Five" personality traits indicate that:
A. personality is largely transmitted through the genes.
B. personality is largely transmitted trough the environment.*
C. individual differences in temperament are related to sex differences in hormonal endowment.
D. individual differences in temperament are more alike for dizygotic twins than for monozygotic twins.
15. Assume for a moment that introverted children adopted by extraverted parents score lower on measures of psychological well-being than do those adopted by introverted parents. Such an outcome would most likely illustrate _____ effects in personality development.
D. family context
16. The distinction between psychogenic and somatogenic disorders
A. will ultimately be a moot issue because all psychological events are based on neurophysiological processes.
B. will remain with us until the discovery of the neurophysiological basis of learning and memory.
C. is actually based on the differences between conditions with a known organic basis and those for which causes are as yet unknown.
D. really amounts to saying that the most direct explanation of some disorders is at the psychological level, while for others it is at the organic level.*
17. In psychiatric classifications, a syndrome is
A. a pattern of signs and symptoms that usually occur together.*
B. a form of disorganized thinking associated with schizophrenia.
C. the key symptom for identifying each psychiatric disorder.
D. a mental disorder that causes physical damage.
18. The dopamine hypothesis is based on the idea that schizophrenia results from
A. the production of an abnormal brain chemical called dopamine.
B. the overactivity of neurons sensitive to the neurotransmitter dopamine.*
C. an inability to produce enough of the neurotransmitter dopamine.
D. the inhibition of brain activity caused by dopamine.
19. With respect to the genetic components of mood disorders, it has been shown that
A. concordance rates for both identical and fraternal twins are the same.
B. genetic factors play a stronger role in bipolar than unipolar disorder.*
C. mood disorders are generally inherited through matrilineal descent.
D. the same genetic factors give rise to both uni- and bipolar disorders.
20. How does the preparedness theory of phobias explain the high incidence of some types of phobias?
A. People do not prepare themselves properly when faced with something that frightens them.
B. Evolution favors those creatures with a built-in fear of dangerous things, like snakes or spiders.*
C. Society prepares people to be afraid of dangerous things like snakes.
D. None of the above.
21. An individual is diagnosed with post-traumatic stress disorder (PSTD) rather than acute stress disorder if
A. the reaction to the stressful event is dissociation.
B. the post-traumatic symptoms include waking flashbacks to the stressful event.
C. the reaction to the stressful event persists for at least one month.*
D. All of the above.
22. Which of the following describes the interaction between dissociative disorders and memories of childhood abuse?
A. always cause false memories of childhood abuse.
B. Childhood abuse always causes dissociative disorders.
C. We do not know for certain whether dissociative disorders make false memories of abuse more likely or if abuse leads to dissociative disorders.*
D. and childhood abuse are unrelated.
91%, .30. Technically, this wasn't a bad item, but the typographical error in Options A -- I had meant to type something like "Dissociative disorder always cause false memories of childhood abuse, which isn't exactly true -- and D -- I had meant to type something like "Disociative disorder and child abuse are unrelated", which isn't known for sure -- might have thrown people off, so we rescored this correct for all responses.
23. Conversion disorder is diagnosed much less frequently today than it was a century ago. Why is this so?
A. Modern doctors are hesitant to diagnose it for fear of being sued.
B. It may be diagnosed less now because of a general increase in medical sophistication in the lay population.
C. Chronic fatigue and somatoform pain disorder may have replaced conversion disorder in modern society.
D. All of the above.*
51%, .14. This might have been a bad item, but because both B and C are clearly correct, it should have been clear that the correct answer was D.
24. Research regarding the possible biological bases of psychopathy indicates that
A. the chemical composition of the blood of antisocial personality types is different from that of normal individuals.
B. antisocial personalities seem to be highly reactive to physiological stress, but show few signs of anxiety.
C. antisocial personalities appear to show little physiological response to stress compared to other individuals.*
D. None of the above.
25. MAO inhibitors and tricyclic antidepressants
A. seem to work by decreasing the amount of norepinephrine and serotonin available for synaptic transmission.
B. seem to work by increasing the amount of norepinephrine and serotonin available for synaptic transmission.*
C. increase levels of dopamine in certain locations in the brain.
D. reduce levels of dopamine in certain locations in the brain.
26. Cognitive therapy deals primarily with teaching
A. the client to recall traumatic events from childhood.
B. the mind to react positively to stressful situations.
C. mind and body relaxation techniques.
D. the client to identify and change maladaptive patterns of thinking.*
27. Meta-analysis is a method convenient for assessing the effectiveness of psychotherapy because it
A. allows the results of many different studies to be combined.
B. allows for a finer, more detailed statistical study.*
C. is much simpler than most other statistical methods.
D. provides more accurate results than other methods.
71%, .36. This item was miskeyed as B in the preliminary scoring key, but we changed the correct answer from B to A, which really is correct, in the rescoring.
28. Geniuses are not normally classified as mentally ill. This fact illustrates a problem with the _____ criterion of deviance.
C. personal distress
29. The diathesis-stress model of psychopathology is a special case of the interaction between:
A. transduction and realism.
B. assimilation and accommodation.
C. the person and the situation.*
D. nature and nurture.
30. Treatment outcome research suggests that:
A. all forms of psychotherapy are about equally effective.
B. psychotherapy generally produces better outcomes than drug treatments.
C. the short-term effects of psychotherapy are about equal to the effects of drugs.*
C. simultaneous drug treatment actually increases the deterioration effect of psychotherapy. manageable
19%, .01. A bad item. This was an unintentionally bad item, because it forced you to choose between information presented in the text (which favors the Dodo Bird Verdict) and information presented in the lecture (which is that the Dodo Bird Verdict isn't quite right). Sorry, I try hard to avoid such items, and just slipped up this time. Anyway, the Dodo Bird Verdict stems from the fact that all forms of psychotherapy do better than nothing. But in fact, cognitive-behavioral therapy is better than psydhodynamic therapy.
Cumulative Portion Includes Items 31-100.
31. The discipline of psychology
A. was strongly influenced by philosophy.*
B. arose independently of other disciplines.
C. is unrelated to newer fields such as computer science.
D. is constantly at odds with biology and medicine.
32. Psychology is concerned with the individual's emotions and motives as well as the individual's perceptions, memories, and thoughts. In this way, it is not quite correct to refer to psychology as a _____ science.
19%, .26. A hard item, to be sure, but not a bad one. Cognition is about knowledge, and it leaves out feeling (emotion) and desire (motivation). So, a concern with emotions and motives is to some extent inconsistent with the definition of psychology as a cognitive science.
33. A CT scan shows:
A. which areas of the brain are abnormally active or inactive.
B. a computer-generated picture of the brain's structure.*
C. the electrical activity of various brain regions.
D. the reaction of parts of neurons to the introduction of magnetic fields.
34. Recovery from aphasia is
A. more likely to occur in right-handers than in left-handers.
B. more likely to occur in left-handers than in right-handers.*
C. equally likely in right- and left-handers, and occurs to a limited extent in both.
D. equally unlikely in right- and left-handers, and occurs very rarely for anyone.
35. Inhibition and excitation at synapses operate by
A. some synapses being inhibitory, others excitatory.*
B. the transport of negative ions under some conditions, positive ones under others.
C. the release of one transmitter substance under some conditions and release of other transmitter substances under different conditions, all by the same neuron.
D. taking in (inhibition) and releasing (excitation) transmitter substances.
E. All of the above
10%, .16. A bad item. I suspect that people were thrown off by the presence of a fifth choice, E, which is wrong but somehow slipped through both my proofreading and the "Find and Replace" function of MSWord.
36. What can be said about homeostatic behaviors?
A. Homeostatic behaviors usually act to orient the animal in its environment.
B. Homeostatic behaviors act to stabilize the conditions within the body.*
C. Homeostatic behaviors do not involve feedback mechanisms.
D. Homeostatic behaviors are involved in temperature regulation only.
37. Stuart is overweight. He goes on a starvation diet in the hopes of slimming down before graduating from college. He starts consuming about 1,000 calories a day. He loses some weight, but not nearly as much as he thought he would. What is the most likely reason for Stuart's failure to lose a great amount of weight?
A. Stuart has a larger number of fat cells.
B. Stuart is probably just losing excess water, which is easily replaced.
C. Stuart's activity level needs to be greatly increased.
D. Stuart's body has compensated for this caloric reduction by reducing its metabolism.*
38. Which of the following would be likely to produce the most profound reduction of cortical arousal?
A. Damage to the connections between the cortex and the subcortical systems.*
B. Destruction of both the parasympathetic and sympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system
C. Prolonged deprivation of REM sleep, without deprivation of slow-wave sleep
D. Chronic addiction to amphetamines
52%, .03. This came close to being a bad item, but not close enough. Anyway, the most profound reduction of cortical arousal --coma -- is caused by damage to the thalamus, and the reticular system, which connect the cortex to subcortical systems. The ANS is part of the peripheral nervous system, and wouldn't do anything to cortical arousal.
39. George suffers from a rare brain disease, as a result of which he has difficulty remembering emotional events from anytime in his life. The disease has most likely destroyed his:
A. prefrontal cortex.
37%, .12. A bad item, though I don't know why. When you think of emotion, you should think of the amygdala. Damage to the hippocampus would cause an anterograde amnesia, but not necessarily a retrograde amnesia for events that occurred before the damage.
40. The "association areas" of the cerebral cortex:
A. are primarily located in the frontal lobe.
B. appear to consist of a number of specialized processing modules.*
C. are not dedicated to any particular mental task.
D. are primarily located in the parietal lobe.
29%, .15. A bad item. The "association cortex" got its name because it was believed to be associated with no particular mental functions -- all it did was "form associations". But now we know there are a lot of mental modules associated with various areas of the "association cortex" -- not least of which are Broca's and Wernicke's areas.
41. The presentation of an air puff to the eye leads reflexively to closure of the eyelid. What is the air puff an example of?
A. A conditioned response
B. An unconditioned response
C. A conditioned stimulus
D. An unconditioned stimulus*
42. If a response is acquired during partial reinforcement, it will be _________ than if it is acquired during continuous reinforcement.
A. more resistant to extinction*
B. more easily shaped
C. less resistant to extinction
D. less easily shaped
43. What is the significance of the fact that the stimuli most easily associated with nausea are different in quail than in rats?
A. The arbitrariness (equipotentiality) principle holds for some species but not for others.
B. Preparedness (or belongingness) is species-specific.*
C. Contingencies are less important in some species than in others.
D. Some species develop learned helplessness more easily than others.
44. A major disadvantage of "instinctual" or species-specific behaviors is that they:
A. permit the extinction of reflexive behaviors, but not the acquisition of new, voluntary responses.
B. only help the animal respond to novel stimuli.
C. do not permit individuals to adapt to rapidly changing environments.*
D. benefit individual species members, but work to the disadvantage of the species as a whole.
45. An animal learns to associate the presentation of a tone with the appearance of food. In a later phase of the experiment, the animal is exposed to the tone, followed by a light, followed by the appearance of food. The result of the experiment illustrate the role of _____ in classical conditioning.
46. The fact that a blow to the ear can result in an auditory stimulus ("ringing of the ear") is consistent with which theory or concept?
A. The concept of an absolute threshold for sensation
B. M�ller's doctrine of specific nerve energies*
C. Fechner's rules for measuring sensation intensity
D. The concept embodied in Weber's law
30%, .19. A bad item. The Doctrine of Specific Nerve energies says that the nature of a sensory experience is caused not by the nature of the stimulus, but by the nature of the nerves that carry the neural impulse to the brain. So, hitting someone on the head, a tactile stimulus, can cause an auditory sensation because the blow to the head stimulates the auditory nerve.
47. What happens when a sound stimulus is transmitted to the cochlea?
A. For low-frequency sound, only one place on the basilar membrane vibrates.
B. For high-frequency sound, the whole basilar membrane moves, but one place moves maximally.*
C. The frequency of vibration of the basilar membrane always equals the frequency of the sound wave.
D. The frequency of vibration of the basilar membrane never equals the frequency of the sound wave.
48. Which of the following is true about color receptors?
A. Any wavelength will stimulate all four types of color receptors, but will do so unequally.
B. Any wavelength will stimulate all three types of color receptors, but will do so unequally.*
C. Any wavelength will stimulate only one or two of the four types of color receptors.
D. Any wavelength will stimulate only one or two of the three types of color receptors.
49. A person with only one eye could perceive depth by using which cue(s)?
A. Linear perspective
B. Texture gradients
C. Relative size
D. All of the above*
50. Why does the world seem to move when you push on your eyeball through the side of your eyelid?
A. The retinal receptors have been stimulated both by what you are looking at and by your finger pressing against your lid.
B. Your eye has moved without being signaled by the brain to do so.*
C. Your eye has been moved without the corresponding blinking that usually occurs when you put your finger very near your eye.
D. You have moved a part of your body voluntarily rather than involuntarily.
51. What do reversible figures demonstrate?
A. Perceptual parsing is not inherent in the stimulus.*
B. Perceptual parsing is inherent in the stimulus.
C. Figure-ground relationships are inherent in the stimulus.
D. Figure-ground relationships are stable.
52. Linear perspective is both an _____ and a _____ cue for the perception of depth and distance.
A. ocular; monocular
B. ocular; binocular
C. optical; monocular*
D. optical; binocular
53. Which phenomenon provides the strongest challenge to Gibson's ecological theory of direct perception?
A. The fact that there are specific receptors on the tongue for various sensory qualities such as bitter and sweet.
B. The role of parallax in the perception of motion.
C. The use of convergence and retinal disparity in the perception of depth.
D. The occurrence of visual illusions such as the Muller-Lyer (arrows and feathers) illusion.*
54. A drug that prevents processing of information into long-term memory is administered to a subject prior to a memory task. Under these conditions, which effect will likely be eliminated?
A. The primacy effect will be eliminated.*
B. The recency effect will be eliminated.
C. Any recall of items will be eliminated.
D. a and b
55. Why are tests of recognition typically easier than tests of recall?
A. Only working memory is needed to store the material for recognition tests.
B. Recall is usually limited to about five to seven items.
C. Recall, but not recognition, requires consolidation.
D. Recognition tests usually provide better retrieval cues.*
56. For several years, researchers thought that damage to the hippocampus in nonhuman animals produced no defects in memory. This is now known to be untrue. The inference that the hippocampus is not involved in memory except in people would, at first, seem sensible. Most tests of memory in animals involve memory for tasks learned by instrumental or classical conditioning, kinds of memory closest to those classed as _________.
57. An individual who is presented with a random list of states (e.g., Oregon, Delaware, Arizona...) recalls all the states on the East Coast before she recalls any of the states in the Midwest. Such an observation illustrates the _____ principle of memory processing.
D. encoding specificity
58. The subject described in Question #57 correctly recalled Indiana and Illinois from the list, but also incorrectly recalled Iowa, which was not actually in the list. Such an error would illustrate the _____ principle of memory processing.
B. schematic processing
36%, .13. A bad item. Whenever you see an error of commission, where the subject remembers something that didn't happen, you should think of the reconstruction principle, where memory is distorted by the subject's beliefs, expectations, and attitudes. However, since these same beliefs, expectations, and attitudes constitute mental schemata, an argument could be made for the schematic processing principle as well.
59. Which of the following cases could be called both a symbolic and an analogical representation?
A. The Roman numeral III*
B. The green light on a traffic signal
C. The words "Her Royal Highness," meaning Queen Elizabeth II
D. An aerial photograph of Manhattan, Brooklyn, and Queens
60. The _________ distinction is known as a distinction between the memory for particular events in one's life and memory for the meaning of concepts and knowledge about the world.
61. What problem-solving technique works well when one is stuck on a very difficult problem?
A. Starting with the goal and working back towards the starting point*
B. Providing a large reward to intensify motivation
C. Using representational thought
D. Using automaticity to allow the problem to "solve itself "
62. According to the classical view of concepts as proper sets, a feature like "has fins" would be _____ to identify an object as a member of the category "fish".
A. neither necessary nor sufficient
B. necessary but not sufficient*
C. sufficient but not necessary
D. both necessary and sufficient.
63. "I really regret going to the basketball game. If I had stayed at home instead, I would have gotten a better grade on my exam." Such thoughts illustrate the _____ heuristic in judgment and decision-making.
D. anchoring and adjustment
64. Morphemes are to phonemes as meanings are to _________.
C. structural principles
65. Which of the following is true of language development in children?
A. Social context is relatively unimportant to language learning.
B. Children do not understand the notion of verbal disapproval until they are about two years old.
C. Children must learn to speak whole sentences before they recognize syntactic rules in speech.
D. Children under the age of two years will not form word-to-meaning associations if the social context does not guide them to do so.*
66. _________ contact with others must minimally occur for one to learn language.
67. According to self-perception theory, we come to know ourselves
A. through processes that are fundamentally different from those we use to learn about others.
B. by applying to our own behavior the same rules of inference we use in interpreting and understanding the behavior of others.*
C. intuitively, and by watching the reactions of others to us.
D. All of the above.
68. Studies of the perception of in-groups versus out-groups indicate that we tend to
A. see out-group members as being more similar to each other than in-group members.*
B. see in-group members as being more similar to each other than out-group members.
C. notice the presence of out-group members more rapidly than we notice the presence of in-group members.
D. see most people with whom we interact as members of an outgroup.
69. Why do peripheral arguments often lead to persuasion?
A. They are forceful because they present critical facts that are persuasive.
B. They lead one to use rules of thumb, such as reliance on experts, to evaluate them regardless of the message.*
C. They are more resistant to the effects of distracting events.
D. All of the above.
70. The idea that opposites attract seems to be
A. generally untrue.*
B. true with respect to beliefs, but not with respect to personality characteristics.
C. true with respect to personality characteristics, but not with respect to beliefs or opinions.
D. true with respect to personality characteristics, but not with respect to social status or religion.
71. Pluralistic ignorance refers to the fact that
A. if nobody knows what to do in an emergency, no action will be taken.
B. when there is a large number of people present, there is a tendency for bystanders to pretend that nothing is happening.
C. when other bystanders do not take action, those present are likely to define the situation as a non-emergency.*
D. in an emergency, large groups of people are easily swayed by a single dominant individual.
72. Some emotions involve an appreciation of a moral order. These emotions include
A. pity and sadness.
B. anger and guilt.*
C. regret and anger.
D. sadness and regret.
73. "If you make your bed, you must lie in it." This old proverb illustrates the Doctrine of:
D. Reciprocal Determinism.
33%, .16. A bad item. Maybe the proverb tripped people up. But the idea is that you have to deal with the situation that you've created. And the idea that people influence the situations to which they respond lies at the heart of the Doctrine of Interactionism.
74. During the civil rights movement in the United States of the 1950s and 1960, leaders like Martin Luther King, Jr., welcomed the possibility of being arrested and jailed because it offered chance to build support for their movement. This tactic illustrates the _____ mode of the person-by-situation interaction.
19%, .06. A bad item. King welcomed the possibility of arrest because being arrested and jailed had a different meaning for him than it would have for most of the rest of us. The objective situation wasn't changed -- a Southern jail is still a Southern jail -- but his subjective perception of the situation changed, as a result of this cognitive transformation.
75. A test is considered valid if
A. it measures the characteristics that it was designed to measure.*
B. it consistently measures whatever it measures.
C. scores obtained on the test are precise and accurate.
D. an individual's score on the test remains the same over long periods of time.
76. Fluid intelligence refers to
A. previously acquired skills and information.
B. the ability to deal with new problems.*
C. verbal ability.
D. mathematical ability.
77. One piece of evidence supporting Howard Gardner's notion of multiple intelligences is based on the fact that
A. there are some people who have multiple personalities.
B. people seem to lose one type of intelligence earlier than others.
C. brain lesions may impair some abilities while leaving others unaffected.*
D. at different times in our lives, we may excel at one type of intelligence at the expense of others.
78. According to many authors (e.g., Cronbach), even a perfect measure of personality structure would not allow us to predict behavior with absolute accuracy because
A. personality provides a disposition only, while circumstances determine how that disposition will be expressed.*
B. personality structure is unstable and changes from moment to moment.
C. personality traits are only theoretical constructs.
D. personality structures change just because of the testing experiences.
79. Situationism is the idea that
A. it is important to measure traits in the situation in which they are most likely to appear or to be relevant.
B. personality traits manifest themselves differently in different situations.
C. the characteristics of a situation rather than one's personality traits determine how one behaves.*
D. None of the above.
80. Children who can delay gratification in early childhood generally
A. lose this ability as they grow older.
B. are more self-reliant and perform better under stress as adolescents and adults.*
C. feel as if they have been cheated out of many things and develop negative characteristics, such as impatience, as adults.
D. make friends more quickly in social settings.
81. Which of the following is an example of assimilation?
A. A child deforms a ball somewhat in order to grasp it the same way he grasps a block.*
B. A child changes his grip so that he can grasp a ball as tightly as he grasps a block.
C. A child develops a new schema of bouncing, and now deals with a ball differently than with a block.
D. A child reorganizes his thinking in order to integrate his experiences with blocks, ball, and other solid objects.
82. Studies of infants' reactions to physically possible and physically impossible events indicated that infants
A. were equally surprised by both sorts of events, indicating that they had no idea that two objects cannot occupy the same space at the same time.
B. were more surprised by impossible events, indicating that they understood that two objects cannot occupy the same space at the same time.*
C. were equally uninterested in both possible and impossible events, indicating that they saw the world as a place in which the basic relationships between objects could change from moment to moment.
D. showed more of an interest in the possible event, presumably because it was familiar.
83. Which of the following statements regarding memory in young children is true?
A. Infants remember in the sense that they can retain and perform an instrumental response several weeks after having learned it.*
B. By about age four, children's working memory span is about the same as adults'.
C. Memory cannot be assessed in preverbal children.
D. Infants demonstrate no clear evidence of memory until they are about eighteen months old.
84. Attachment patterns are most likely to change when
A. the child is initially classified as anxious/avoidant.
B. the child is initially classified as anxious/resistant.
C. two parents share parenting responses equally.
D. there are major changes in the child's environment.*
85. Children from permissive homes are likely to
A. be low in intellectual self-reliance and originality.*
B. be self-reliant, but anxious and aggressive.
C. be self-reliant, competent, and warm.
D. show high leadership skills, but to be manipulative and emotionally distant from others.
86. Studies comparing the moral reasoning of males and females have shown that
A. men tend to reason predominantly postconventionally, while women reason predominantly preconventionally.
B. the difference in moral reasoning between males and females is greater for people over thirty-five than for people between the ages of eighteen and thirty-five.
C. the literature reveals no reliable difference in moral reasoning between males and females.*
D. men tend to reason predominantly preconventionally, while women reason predominantly postconventionally.
26%, .19. A bad item. Carol Gilligan initially claimed that there was an important gender difference in moral reasoning, but these claims have been substantially discounted by later data.
87. The effects of being raised in a middle-class vs. impoverished environment would be classified as contributing to _____ variance.
C. shared environmental*
D. nonshared environmental
24%, .13. A bad item. Socioeconomic status is something that would be shared by all members of a single family.
88. Analyses of the effects of birth order on personality generally find that:
A. Firstborns have slightly lower IQ scores, on average, than latterborns.
B. Birth-order effects are inevitably confounded with the effects of family size and socioeconomic status.
C. Firstborns tend to be more anxious and more responsible than latterborns.*
D. Firstborns tend to be more easygoing and more rebellious than latterborns.
89. Researchers believe that severe fear reactions suffered in childhood cause a certain mental disorder. A new discovery shows that the disorder is really caused by the lack of a specific enzyme. The disorder will now change in classification from what to what?
A. Somatogenic to psychogenic.
B. Hysterical to psychoanalytic.
C. Psychoanalytic to pathological
D. Psychogenic to somatogenic*
90. The concordance rate for schizophrenia among identical twins is fifty-five percent, while the comparable figure for fraternal twins is nine percent. These results suggest that
A. genetic factors predominate in the etiology of schizophrenia.
B. there is a very weak genetic component in the development of schizophrenia.
C. schizophrenia is essentially caused by environmental factors.
D. both genetic and environmental factors play important roles in the development of schizophrenia.*
91. What is the main difference between generalized anxiety disorder and panic disorder?
A. Panic disorder involves specific objects or events while generalized anxiety disorder does not.
B. Panic disorder is chronic while generalized anxiety disorder is not.
C. Generalized anxiety disorder is brought on by stress while panic disorder is not.
D. Panic disorder is intermittent while generalized anxiety disorder is not.*
92. Antipsychotic drugs have drawbacks as well as advantages when they are used to treat schizophrenia; for example, these drugs
A. only relieve symptoms while they are being taken.
B. neither cure the disease nor alter its progress.
C. have fairly serious side effects.
D. All of the above.*
93. According to the helplessness/hopelessness theory, a particular "style" of making causal attributions serves as a ______ factor on the onset of depression.
A. biological diathesis
B. psychosocial diathesis*
C. biological stress
D. psychosocial stress
94. The various forms of behavior therapy for anxiety disorder appear to share _____ as a common underlying mechanism.
22%, .30. A difficult item, but not a bad one. But what systematic desensitization, flooding, and other forms of behavior therapy for anxiety disorder do, apparently, is extinguish the anxiety response.
95. Modern forms of psychodynamic therapy share with traditional psychoanalysis an emphasis upon
A. a detailed exploration of the client's early past.
B. problems in the client's psychosexual development.
C. emotional insight into unconscious conflicts.*
D. a long-term, intensive commitment to therapy.
96. Some patients may get better while in therapy simply because they expect to get better. This demonstrates the _________ effect.
A. dodo bird
97. An experimenter studying altruism counts how much, if any, money subjects decide to drop in a charity box. What type of scale do the results form?
15%, .05. A bad item. But the one thing about a ratio scale is that, unlike the other scales, it has a true zero point -- like no money.
98. The median
A. is a measure of central tendency.
B. divides a distribution into two equal halves.
C. allows for a calculation of variability in a distribution.
D. a and b.*
99. In a normal curve, the percentage of scores that lie between minus one standard deviation and plus one standard deviation is
A. approximately 68 percent.*
B. equal to the percentage lying between the mean and one standard deviation.
C. equal to the mean times its frequency.
D. approximately 50 percent.
100. The major theme(s) of this course is (are) best summarized by:
A. Behavior is determined by the individual's mental representation of the situation.
B. People create the situations to which they respond.
C. The person is an agent of his or her own development.
D. All of the above.*
Retain this exam, along with a record of your answers.
A provisional answer key will be posted to the course website by 3:00 PM today.
The exam will be provisionally scored to identify and eliminate bad items.
The exam will then be rescored with bad items keyed correct for all responses.
Be sure that you have an account on the course website.
This is how we will be able to give you notice of your grade.
A final, revised, answer key, and analyses of the exam items,
will be posted on the course website when grades are posted.