Department of Psychology
The initial scoring of the exam revealed five (5) "bad" items: #8, #13, #56, #90, and #96. These items were rescored correct for all responses.
In addition, the initial scoring revealed one (1) miskeyed item: the correct answer for #18 is C, not B.
No other items were rescored.
Before rescoring, the mean score on the exam was 64.18 (SD = 14.52), or approximately 64% correct, a little lower than the 65-70% window that I like to maintain as the minimum average on my exams. After rescoring, the mean rose to 71.56 (SD = 14.58), which is just about typical for my exams.
In what follows, I give the correct answer for each of the items, the percentage of the class getting each item correct, and the item-to-total correlation (rpb) for each item.
In addition, there is some commentary on the "bad" items, and selected other items. Full commentary will appear later.
Choose the best answer to each of the following 100 questions. Questions are drawn from the text and lectures in roughly equal proportions, with the understanding that there is considerable overlap between the two sources. Usually, only one question is drawn from each major section of each chapter of the required readings; again, sometimes this question also draws on material discussed in class. Read the entire exam through before answering any questions: sometimes one question will help you answer another one.
Most questions can be correctly answered in one of two ways: (1) by fact-retrieval, meaning that you remember the answer from your reading of the text or listening to the lecture; or (2) inference, meaning that you can infer the answer from some general principle discussed in the text or lecture. If you cannot determine the correct answer by either of these methods, try to eliminate at least one option as clearly wrong: this maximizes the likelihood that you will get the correct answer by chance. Also, go with your intuitions: if you have actually done the assigned readings and attended the lectures, your "informed guesses" will likely be right more often than they are wrong.
Be sure you are using a red Scantron sheet.
Fill in the appropriate circles with a #2 pencil only.
Be sure you put your name on the front of the red Scantron sheet.
Be sure you put your Student ID# on both sides of the red Scantron sheet.
Indicate Exam 003 (use all three digits) on the reverse side of the red Scantron sheet.
Retain this exam, along with a record of your answers.
1. Self-perception theory implies that role-playing would
A. help a person understand a particular position, but not affect her attitude toward the position.
B. lead to increased sympathy for the role played.*
C. make a person more aware of the difference between her own position and the one she is playing.
D. a and c
24% correct, item-to-total rpb = .25.
2. The out-group homogeneity effect refers to the observation that we tend to
A. see all out-groups as having the same set of (generally negative) characteristics.
B. see out-group members as being more similar to each other than in-group members.*
C. perceive most other people as members of an out-group.
D. see out-group members as having the same characteristics and beliefs as members of our smallest in-group.
74%, rpb = .38.
3. When we make attributions for our own behavior (as opposed to the behavior of others), we tend to
A. overestimate the importance of dispositional factors.
B. ignore the importance of salient situational factors.
C. see our behavior as more governed by situational factors than observers do.*
D. a and b.
4. Social loafing predicts that, when students are asked to clap and cheer as loudly as they can, either alone or in groups,
A. individuals will cheer more vigorously when in groups of friends rather than strangers.
B. the vigorousness of clapping and cheering will be unrelated to the number of people involved.
C. each individual will clap and cheer more vigorously the more people are involved.
D. each individual will clap and cheer less vigorously the more people are involved.*
5. The fact that intelligence test scores remain remarkably stable over the lifespan indicates that intelligence tests are
6. Janet has a knack for figuring things out. When faced with puzzles and problems she has never seen before, Janet always manages to find a solution. Janet is high in _________ intelligence.
7. The term phenotype refers to an organism's
A. recessive genes.
B. visible structure and behavior.*
C. genetic blueprint.
D. shared characteristics with offspring.
8. If all of the children born this year were raised in absolutely identical environments, the heritability coefficient for intelligence measures would eventually be
A. close to 0
B. close to 1.00*
C. close to .50
D. unaffected, since the heritability coefficient for intelligence measures is a measure of the direct contribution of the genotype to intelligence.
16%, .12. A bad item. This was so straightforward an item that it must have looked tricky. If all children are raised in absolutely identical environments, then the variance attributable to environments is exactly zero. And since total variability is the sum of genetic variability and environmental variability, then genetic variability, hence heritability coefficient, must be 1.00.
9. Which of the following is probably the best predictor of a mental patient's rehospitalization following his release?
A. Subscores on the MMPI
B. Interpretations based on both the TAT and the Rorschach test
C. The patient's income and education level
D. The thickness of the patient's medical file folder*
41%, .52. The best predictor of future behavior is past behavior in similar situations. Therefore, the best predictor of rehospitalization is the number of times the patient has been hospitalized previously.
10. In general, trait theories involve the idea that
A. different situations produce entirely different behaviors.
B. a person's behavior is rarely consistent across time and situations.
C. people can be grouped according to their basic underlying personality characteristics.*
D. the search for patterns in personality is misguided.
11. Newborn babies scream for attention whenever they are hungry or wet. In Freudian terms, the behavior of a newborn is governed by
A. the superego.
B. the id.*
C. the ego.
12. For humanists such as Abraham Maslow and Carl Rogers, self-actualization is defined as
A. the final integration of personality traits and habits into a fully unified self.
B. the achievement of happiness and personal contentment.
C. fulfilling oneself and realizing one's full potential.*
D. becoming fully and consciously aware of all one's internal doubts and conflicts.
13. According to the Doctrine of Interactionism:
A. genetic factors combine with environmental factors to produce behavioral phenotypes.
B. situational factors are more important causes of behavior than personal factors.
C. people influence the situations to which they respond.*
D. the personal and situational determinants of behavior are interlocked in a system of reciprocal determinism.
32%, .00. A bad item. The basic point of the Doctrine of Interactionism is that neither personal nor environmental factors are the most important determinants of behavior, because they are not independent: people shape the environments to which they respond. Option D. pertains to the Doctrine of Reciprocal Determinism, which includes, but goes beyond, the DofI.
14. The "Foot in the Door Effect" revealed in the study by Freedman and Fraser illustrates the influence of:
A. behavior on the person.*
B. the situation on behavior.
C. behavior on the situation.
D. the situation on the person.
15. The "Weapon Effect" revealed in the study by Berkowitz and LePage illustrates the influence of
A. behavior on the person.
B. the situation on behavior.*
C. behavior on the situation.
D. the situation on the person.
16. In the "Prisoner's Dilemma", competitive behavior (i.e., defections) by one subject tends to elicit competitive behavior by his or her partner. This outcome illustrates the influence of the person on the situation through:
17. Bodily growth and brain growth
A. both happen in spurts in childhood.*
B. both happen continuously in childhood.
C. differ in that bodily growth happens continuously while brain growth happens in spurts throughout childhood.
D. differ in that bodily growth happens in spurts while brain growth happens continuously throughout childhood.
18. The data on intellectual capacities in adopted children indicate that
A. adoptees tend to be smarter than children reared by their biological parents.
B. genes play almost no role in shaping intellectual capacities.
C. adopted children more closely resemble their biological than their adoptive parents in terms of intellectual capacities.*
D. adopted children more closely resemble their adoptive than their biological parents in terms of intellectual capacities.
79%, .38. This item was originally miskeyed. One piece of evidence for a genetic contribution to intelligence is that adopted children more closely resemble their biological than their adoptive parents in terms of IQ.
19. When young infants lose sight of a toy they have been enjoying looking at, they typically
A. start to cry and fuss inconsolably.
B. show little concern.*
C. reach all around where the toy was last seen.
D. blink repeatedly as though that will make the toy reappear.
20. A three-year-old and a five-year-old watch Megan and Danika hide a cookie in a yellow box. They then watch Megan leave and Danika move the cookie to a blue box. When asked where Megan will look for the cookie,
A. both children will most likely say, "The yellow box."
B. both children will most likely say, "The blue box."
C. the older child will say, "The yellow box"; the younger child will say, "The blue box."*
D. the younger child will say, "The yellow box"; the older child will say, "The blue box."
47%, .33. This is about the false-belief test of theory of mind. Megan thinks that the cookie is in the yellow box. The three-year-old knows that the cookie has been moved to the blue box, and -- because she has not yet developed a theory of mind -- thinks that Megan knows what she knows. The five-year-old, however, having developed a theory of mind, knows that she knows something different than Megan does.
21. Which of the following is the strongest evidence against Freud's theory that an infant's attachment to his mother is caused merely by a fear that the infant's bodily needs will not be met?
A. A human infant is more likely to approach a stranger while his or her mother is present.
B. Ducklings can be imprinted early in life to follow any object that moves in a manner similar to a duck.
C. In the laboratory, an infant monkey that is frightened will more readily cling to a terrycloth figure that provides contact comfort than to a wire figure that provides food.*
D. Both monkey and human infants that are raised in a motherless environment are withdrawn, tending to sit alone and rocking back and forth.
22. In Ainsworth's studies with the "Strange Situation", children are classified as securely attached if they
A. stay close to the mother instead of exploring the toys.
B. continue to play with toys and ignore the mother when she returns.
C. do not show distress when the mother leaves.
D. seem comfortable in the mother's presence, show some distress at her absence, and greet her return enthusiastically.*
23. Parents who are inflexible in their thinking and control their children's behavior largely through punishment are likely to produce children who are
A. independent and self-reliant.
B. immature but cheerful.
C. withdrawn and hostile.*
D. impulsive but otherwise socially responsible.
24. There is a severe drought and a ban on outdoor watering. The Dodges decide they will not wash their car because they realize that if everyone washed a car, the town might not have drinking water. Their reasoning places them in which of Kohlberg's stages?
25. Based on twin studies of personality, we can say that:
A. genetic factors make a relatively small contribution to individual differences.
B. between-family variance is substantially greater than within-family variance.
C. the nonshared environment is more important than the shared environment.*
D. parents have no effect on how their children turn out.
26. Birth-order effects on personality and intelligence represent _____ effects on development.
D. family context*
27. _________ are misinterpretations of real events, while _________ are experiences with no real basis in external sensory stimulation.
A. Disturbances of thought; hallucinations
B. Hallucinations; ideas of reference
C. Delusions; hallucinations*
D. Ideas of reference; delusions
28. Most patients with unipolar disorder
A. remain either manic or depressed throughout the lifespan.
B. suffer periods of deep depression.*
C. experience mood swings every few hours.
D. experience only one manic episode in their lives.
42%, .28. Bipolar disorder includes episodes of both depression and mania. Unipolar disorder can take either depressive or manic form, but depression is far more common.
29. Generalized anxiety disorders, unlike phobias, characteristically involve
A. episodes of irrational panic.
C. constant and pervasive anxiety.*
D. unpleasant physiological arousal.
30. Which of the following is not a characteristic of antisocial personality disorder?
A. A lack of genuine love or loyalty
B. High levels of fear and anxiety*
C. Well-developed social skills
D. Little remorse about past misdeeds
40%, .46. People with antisocial personality disorder have difficulty conforming their conduct to societal standards, but they can be superficially charming, thus displaying lots of social skill.
31. Atypical antipsychotics like Clozaril are different from classical antipsychotics like Thorazine in which way?
A. Only atypical antipsychotics treat positive symptoms.
B. Only classical antipsychotics treat negative symptoms.
C. Only atypical antipsychotics treat both positive and negative symptoms.*
D. Only classical antipsychotics treat both positive and negative symptoms.
32. According to classical and neo-Freudian psychoanalysts, what is the key to a neurosis?
A. The conflict between the patient and her parents..
B. The hidden sexual desires of the patient.
C. Unconscious conflicts.*
D. A struggle between the id and the ego.
33. Advocates of group therapy claim that group experience is more effective than individual therapy because
A. the individual client gets much more personalized attention.
B. the group provides on-the-spot practice in interpersonal skills.*
C. group therapists typically use a client-centered approach.
D. each patient learns that she is special and unique.
34. According to a meta-analytic investigation of therapy outcomes described in your textbook, a review of 475 studies revealed that the average person who receives therapy is better off at the end of it than _____________ percent of persons who do not receive therapy.
35. "Ego-dystonic symptoms" are part of the _____ criterion for mental illness.
C. personal distress*
68%, .13. Ego-syntonic symptoms are perceived by the patient as a part of his or her normal personality (however disturbing they may be to other people). Ego-dystonic symptoms are experienced by the patient as alien and unwanted, thus subjectively distressing.
36. Adolescents with low levels of MAOA activity are especially prone to develop conduct disorder
A. if they also have an identical twin with the same genotype.
B. if they are carrying high levels of diathesis for adolescent conduct disorder.
C. if they have been exposed to high levels of maltreatment.*
D. if they come from families with relatively low socioeconomic status
37. Overall the combination of drug treatment and cognitive-behavioral therapy is more effective than either type of therapy alone because:
A. Some patients respond to drugs but not psychotherapy, while other patients respond to psychotherapy but not drugs.
B. Drugs produce relatively rapid symptom-relief, while psychotherapy produces long-lasting changes in coping skills.*
C. Cognitive-behavioral therapy sets up "token economies" that reward patients for not being depressed.
D. It is not true that the combination works better than either treatment alone.
38. _________ comparisons compare one group to itself in another setting; _________ comparisons compare two groups in the same setting.
A. Between-subject; within-subject
B. Within-subject; between-subject*
C. Inter-subject; intra-subject
D. Intra-subject; inter-subject
39. __________ are bundles of neurons that conduct excitation toward the brain or spinal cord.
C. Efferent nerves
D. Afferent nerves*
40. In which lobe would you expect neurons to be most reliably activated by the stimulation of a nerve receiving sensory information from the skin of the knee?
41. A woman with a split-brain operation fixates on the exact center of the screen as the word EATEN is very briefly flashed. What is she most likely to report seeing?
D. A hodgepodge of lines, but no meaningful word.
71%, .43. EAT, presented in the left visual half-field, projects to the right hemisphere, which has no speech, but controls the movements of the left hand. TEN, presented in the right visual half-field, projects to the left hemisphere, which has the capacity for speech, permitting her to report that portion of the word.
42. What is homeostasis?
A. A theory of need reduction.
B. A built-in tendency to regulate bodily conditions.*
C. The psychological representation of a need.
D. The diffusion of fluids in a cell.
43. With respect to food intake, anorexia seems most similar to the symptoms shown by rats with which disorder?
A. High levels of parasympathetic arousal.
B. Addiction to endorphins.
C. Damage to the lateral part of the hypothalamus.*
D. Parasympathetic overshoot.
74%, 19. Damage to certain portions of the hypothalamus causes aphagia, or undereating. Technically, it's damage to the lateral hypothalamus that causes aphagia, while damage to the ventromedial hypothalamus causes hyperphagia, or overeating. But note that I didn't ask you to choose between the two lesion sites: that would be a little too picky.
44. According to some researchers, why do babies experience more REM sleep than adults do?
A. Babies tire easily from the excitation of the day.
B. Digestion from regular hourly feedings takes up so much of their energy.
C. Babies are remarkably active during their waking periods.
D. Babies are forging new neural connections.*
45. The biological survival value of a particular behavior is best measured by seeing whether the behavior
A. leads to a relatively long adult life for the animal.
B. allows the animal to mate more often.
C. increases the average number of descendants.*
D. makes the animal more aggressive.
46. In which of the following situations should the male be choosier than the female with whom he mates?
A. The male must show colorful plumage and a complex courtship display.
B. Several males in succession mate with one female.
C. The male cares for the offspring.*
D. The reproductive group is a dominant male and several females.
47. Which of the following clearly illustrates or involves pluralistic ignorance?
A. A bystander decides not to help a car accident victim because others are present who will undoubtedly do so.
B. A passerby decides a man lying on the sidewalk is not in trouble because nobody else in the vicinity is stopping to assist him.*
C. A bystander does not help a heart attack victim because he is not sure how to administer CPR.
D. All of the above.
60%, .35. Nobody in the situation is doing anything, thereby reinforcing the interpretation, by each passerby, that there is no emergency after all.
48. When does stimulus generalization occur?
A. When an organism responds to a range of stimuli that are similar to the original CS.*
B. When an organism produces several slightly different responses to the same CS.
C. When an organism responds only to a particular CS.
D. When an organism responds to second order conditioning.
49. In order to shape performance of a response, all but one of the following procedures should be followed. Which procedure is not appropriate?
A. Provide a clear signal for the arrival of reinforcement.
B. Present the reinforcement immediately after the response is performed.
C. Initially reinforce approximations to the desired response.
D. Begin by reinforcing the most difficult component in the response sequence.*
65%, .28. Shaping starts with the least difficult response.
50. What learned contingency is most important in classical conditioning?
A. If CS, then US and if no CS, then no US.*
B. If CS, then CR and if no CS, then no CR.
C. If US, then UR and if no US, then no UR.
D. If US, then CS and if no US, then no CS.
40%, .43. In classical conditioning, organisms learn to predict the occurrence of the Unconditioned Stimulus from the occurrence of the Conditioned Stimulus. It's the CS-US contingency that is critical.
51. Assume that an experiment has determined that, for monkeys, the Weber fraction for vision is 1/25 while that for audition is 1/5. What does this tell us?
A. The monkey can make finer visual discriminations than auditory discriminations.*
B. The monkey can make finer auditory discriminations than visual discriminations.
C. Over the range of perceptible stimuli, the monkey's visual sense is as keen as its auditory sense.
D. An auditory stimulus is perceived as being five times as intense as a visual stimulus.
54%, .39. Small Weber fractions indicate greater sensory acuity.
52. What does the perceived pitch of an auditory stimulus depend upon?
A. The place on the basilar membrane that is maximally deformed by the auditory stimulus is responsible for high-frequency sounds.
B. The frequency of impulses in the auditory nerve that is generated by the auditory stimulus is responsible for low-frequency sounds.
C. The amount of deformation of the cochlea itself.
D. Both a and b.*
53. What negative afterimage would you see if you were presented with a blue-colored square?
A. A red-colored square.
B. A black-colored square.
C. A yellow-colored square.*
D. A green-colored square.
76%, .36. The opponent-process pairs are black-white, red-green, and yellow-blue.
54. Which of the following are optical or pictorial cues to depth?
A. Motion parallax.
C. Binocular disparity.
D. All of the above.
39%, .33. Difficult call here. There's a technical distinction between optical and pictorial cues for depth, which I've sloughed over in the past; in future offerings of the course, I'll be more careful.A lot of students went for D, presumably on the interpretation of motion motion parallax as a pictorial cue, but I didn't discuss motion parallax at all, and Gleitman doesn't discuss it in the context of pictorial cues. In fact, motion parallax belongs in an entirely different category altogether. True, I listed retinal disparity as an optical cue, but Gleitman doesn't, and only 7% of the class went for binocular disparity over interposition anyway. Crucially, only the item-to-total correlation for Option B was positive; the correlations for the other responses were all negative. When push comes to shove, the item-to-total correlation has to be decisive, or the process of evaluating items just becomes too subjective, arbitrary, and capricious.
55. Which of the following provides the most convincing evidence that there must be a mechanism that serves to stabilize the physical world when one's eyes move voluntarily?
A. We are able to perceive the difference between an object that is stationary and one that is moving.
B. The world seems to jump to the left if, when your eye muscles are paralyzed, you try to move your eyes to the right.*
C. When things in your visual field move in one direction, you often feel that you are moving in the opposite direction, even though you are actually stationary.
D. When you move one way, objects in the foreground seem to zoom by, whereas those objects farther away seem to move at a more leisurely pace.
56. With which question is the study of pattern recognition most concerned?
A. What parts of the object go together?
B. What is the object?*
C. What part of the object is figure, what part is ground?
D. Why is that object present?
11%, -.09. A bad item. The feature-detector mechanisms analyze stimuli into their constituent features, like horizontal and vertical lines, and closed and open circles. Pattern recognition connects constellations of features with knowledge already stored in memory, and enables people to identify -- to recognize -- the objects as familiar. A lot of people went for A, which has more to do with the Gestalt laws of grouping by similarity, proximity, good form, good continuation, etc.
57. Two groups hear a list of 20 unrelated items at the same 1-item-persecond rate and are then tested for free recall. For group I, the test comes 1 second after hearing the final item in the list. For group II, the test comes 30 seconds after hearing the final item, with the 30 seconds filled with backward counting. Which of the following should we expect?
A. The same primacy effect for both groups; a greater recency effect for group I.*
B. The same primacy effect for both groups; a greater recency effect for group II.
C. The same recency effect for both groups; a greater primacy effect for group I.
D. The same recency effect for both groups; a greater primacy effect for group II.
58. When subjects study a list of unrelated words, they will often group them together to represent an image, or make up a story. This illustrates the _____ principle in memory processing.
60%, -.05. A crummy item-to-total correlation, but because most people chose the correct answer it stayed in the test. Grouping has to do with organization. The organization can be in terms of category clustering, but there can also be other bases for organization. In any event, elaboration connects individual items with pre-existing knowledge. Organization relates individual items to each other -- in this case, by weaving them together into a story or an image.
59. On a test of recall, subjects who learn a list of words in one room do better if tested in that same room than if tested in a different room. This finding is best explained by
B. method of loci.
C. positive transfer.
D. encoding specificity.*
60. How does use of a schema improve memory?
A. A schema improves memory for details.
B. A schema provides a framework to use in interpreting a situation.*
C. A schema helps avoid making errors in remembering the details of a situation.
D. All of the above.
56%, .39. A schema is, first and foremost, a framework that provides the cognitive background against which memories are encoded and retrieved.
61. Carlos' exam comes back with the marking 89% at the top of the page. What can we say about this example?
A. The number 89 is a symbolic representation, the % sign an analogical representation.
B. The number 89 is an analogical representation, the % sign a symbolic representation.
C. The number 89 and the % sign are both symbolic representations.*
D. The number 89 and the % sign are both analogical representations.
62. The essence of mastership in typing, athletics, chess, and a variety of other skills is the ability to
B. use mnemonics.
C. organize material from the area of expertise into larger chunks.*
D. attend to the relevant stimuli for sustained periods of time.
63. What is the biggest advantage of using algorithms to solve problems?
A. Algorithms will eventually result in a correct solution if one exists.*
B. Algorithms work more efficiently than do heuristics.
C. Algorithms are the methods that experts use when solving difficult problems in their own area of expertise.
D. All of the above are advantages of using algorithms.
64. Similarity is the key to the _____ heuristic.
D. anchoring and adjustment
65. Which of the following is an example of a single morpheme?
84%, .30. Morphemes are the smallest linguistic units that carry meaning. The word TALKED consists of two morphemes, TALK and -ED, the latter signifying past tense). You could make a technical argument, based on linguistics, that the proper morpheme is RUN, not RAN, but that would be too tricky.
66. A concept has a family resemblance structure when
A. its meaning is different from its reference.
B. it is described by a set of defining features.
C. it is described by a set of characteristic features, no one of which is individually either necessary or sufficient.*
D. it cannot be represented by a mental image, but it shares features with other words.
67. Which of the following is evidence against the idea that children learn language through imitation?
A. Children are able to understand sentences they have never heard before.
B. The number of possible novel sentences is too large to ever learn by imitation and memorization alone.
C. Children are able to generate sentences they have never heard before.
D. All of the above.*
68. Sharon runs a club, but the members tend to take the club for granted. According to cognitive dissonance theory, if Sharon wants members to value their membership more, she should
A. let more people join.
B. lower membership fees.
C. increase membership fees.*
D. improve the facilities.
69. One factor that perpetuates social stereotypes is illusory correlations, which are due to
A. inattention to co-occurrences in the world.
B. paying attention to too many co-occurrences in the world.
C. noting and remembering just some co-occurrences in the world.*
D. paying particular attention to those co-occurrences that are unexpected.
70. The "Fundamental Attribution Error" is
A. taking a behavior as a sign of internal dispositions and downplaying obvious or potential situational determinants.*
B. placing too much weight on situational determinants in making attributions for behavior.
C. the tendency to see conformity in behavior across situations as based on an inferred internal disposition.
D. overemphasizing the role of chance in determining behavior.
71. Imagine an Asch-style social pressure experiment in which the judgments are made more difficult (e.g., 6.5 vs. 6.25 inches) than in the standard task. Most likely, compared to the standard task, participants in the new version will
A. yield more and be more emotionally disturbed.
B. yield more and be less emotionally disturbed.*
C. yield less and be more emotionally disturbed.
D. yield less and be less emotionally disturbed.
72. The extent to which a test measures what it is designed to measure is known as the test's
A. criterion measure.
73. A big question addressed by the psychometric approach is whether intelligence is
A. a unitary phenomenon or consists of multiple generalized components.*
C. primarily environmentally-determined.
D. primarily mathematical.
74. Identical twins
A. can differ in genotype.
B. can differ in phenotype.*
C. can differ in both genotype and phenotype.
D. arise from the simultaneous fertilization of two ova by two different sperm cells.
84%, .37. Identical twins can differ in phenotype, despite being identical in genotype, if they're exposed to different environments.
75. Which of the following pairs of correlation coefficients most closely corresponds to the observed correlations between the intelligence scores of adopted children, and those of their adoptive or biological parents?
A. Child-adoptive: 0.15; child-biological: 0.28*
B. Child-adoptive: 0.28; child-biological: 0.15
C. Child-adoptive: 0.90; child-biological: 0.10
D. Child-adoptive: 0.10; child-biological: 0.90
76. _________ are devices for assessing personality by presenting unstructured stimuli that elicit responses of many kinds.
A. Personality inventories
B. Projective techniques*
D. Stimulus inventories
77. Matt is extremely aggressive, excitable, changeable, and impulsive. On the scales employed by Hans Eysenck, how do you think Matt would be categorized?
A. Neurotic extrovert.*
B. Emotionally stable extrovert.
C. Neurotic introvert.
D. Emotionally stable introvert.
78. In comparing the views of contemporary social learning theorists with those of behaviorists and trait theorists, the textbook's authors suggest that social learning theorists
A. are much more interested in cognitive processes than behaviorists or trait theorists.
B. are like behaviorists in that they emphasize the role of situational factors in behavior.
C. are unlike trait theorists, in that they do not assume that personality attributes are built-in or genetic.
D. All of the above.*
79. The dynamics in the psychoanalytic term "psychodynamics" most clearly refers to the
A. inevitable conflict between different family members during a child's first 5 to 6 years of life.
B. relations among the various psychological forces hidden within an individual.*
C. differences in temperament among individuals.
D. observations that the behavior of normal people is filled with meaningful activities, whereas that of people with major problems seems to be less active and meaningful.
80. The concept of critical periods in human development
A. implies that certain events are more important at one particular time than they would be either earlier or later.
B. was derived from phenomena of embryological development.
C. is considered too rigid to explain the phenomena of human development after birth.
D. All of the above.*
81. According to Piaget, a child who moves from the observation that 4 + 1 and 6 + 1 both produce odd numbers to the principle that adding 1 to any even number makes an odd number is in which stage?
A. Formal operational.*
D. Concrete operational.
82. In a recent habituation study, infants less than six months of age were shown a series of slides, each showing three objects. After habituation had taken place, the infants were shown additional slides, some containing three objects, others containing only two objects. The results indicated that
A. the infants showed renewed interest in the slides containing three objects after they were intermixed with slides showing two objects.
B. the infants looked longer at the slides of two objects, indicating that they saw them as novel.*
C. the infants showed no interest in either of the slides, indicating that the just-noticeable difference for number at this age is greater than one object.
D. the infants' looking time was determined by what the objects in the slides were rather than by how many there were.
83. The development of autobiographical memory
A. is biologically preprogrammed to unfold at the same time in all normal children.
B. is determined by the child's general memory capacity.
C. is shaped by conversations about life events that the child participates in.*
D. takes place in a discrete stage of cognitive development.
84. Bowlby argues that attachment is due to
A. the infant's built-in tendency to seek contact with an adult and to fear the unfamiliar.*
B. the fact that the mother attends to the infant's basic needs, such as food and warmth.
C. the fact that the mother carries the infant everywhere and the infant gets used to that closeness.
D. the mother's efforts to win over the infant with smiles and speech.
85. The best therapy for the effects of social isolation in six-month-old monkeys is to
A. allow them to attach to a warm terrycloth mother.
B. allow them to be with an adult female monkey who has lost her own infant.
C. allow them ample contact with normal young monkeys about three months older than they are.
D. put them in a cage with normal young monkeys about three months younger than they are.*
86. The way parents treat their children
A. is determined solely by the way the parents were treated as children.
B. is determined solely by the parents' socialization goals.
C. is shaped, to some extent, by the children themselves.*
D. determines how the children will develop.
87. In our society,
A. inborn sex differences in aggression are probably enhanced by environmental factors.*
B. boys who are physically aggressive are generally treated the same as girls who are physically aggressive.
C. girls are less likely than boys to engage in any sort of aggression.
D. All of the above.
88. A psychogenic disorder is one that
A. has a physical cause.
B. is organic in origin.
C. is psychological in origin.*
D. has no cure.
89. According to the DSM-IV, mental disorders
A. are clinically significant behavioral or psychological syndromes.
B. may be associated with distressing symptoms or functional impairments.
C. may be associated with significantly increased risks of suffering, disability, or loss of freedom.
D. All of the above.*
90. The chances that a sibling of a schizophrenic individual will also be schizophrenic are fairly high, about eight in one hundred. This does not show that schizophrenia is inherited because
A. if it were, the risk would be much closer to one hundred percent.
B. the level of risk is about the same in the general population.
C. siblings usually grow up in the same environments.*
D. All of the above.
31%, .17. A bad item. Identical twins are genetically identical, but they are also generally raised in the same environment -- meaning the same family. So, a significant concordance rate for identical twins could be due to either genetic similarity or environmental similarity. To tease genes and environments apart, we need to have data from either dizygotic twins (who are also raised in the same environment, though they are not genetically identical); or we need to have data from monozygotic twins who are separated, and raised in different environments.
91. Depressed individuals often exhibit vegetative signs. These include
A. weakness, loss of appetite, and sleep disorders.*
B. disrupted attention and poor short-term memory.
C. social withdrawal, anxiety, and delusions of worthlessness.
D. agitation, anxiety, and cognitive impairment.
92. Antipsychotic drugs are not the perfect treatment for schizophrenia. For example,
A. because of their side effects, many patients do not reliably take their medications.*
B. about ninety-seven percent of patients taking medication regularly have further outbreaks of the illness requiring hospitalization.
C. antipsychotics are ineffective in about eighty-two percent of schizophrenic patients.
D. All of the above.
93. Psychotherapy refers to
A. all attempts to treat mental disorders.
B. all treatment aimed at exposing unconscious conflicts.
C. treatment using psychological rather than biological methods.*
D. treatment of symptoms rather than of causes.
94. How does cognitive therapy help people suffering from panic disorders?
A. Cognitive therapy teaches the client to relax her body at the onset of a panic attack.
B. Cognitive therapy teaches the client to achieve a more realistic interpretation of her bodily sensations.*
C. Cognitive therapy teaches the client how to use positive thinking and imagery to alleviate panic attacks.
D. Cognitive therapy teaches the client how to use biofeedback to control panic attacks.
95. Which of the following best describes the "Dodo Bird Verdict"?
A. Only therapies that deal with the underlying cause of the problem can be effective.
B. Clients who come to a therapist with a hostile attitude are less likely to be helped than those who come with a positive attitude.
C. The differences between various psychotherapies and their effectiveness are very slight or nonexistent.*
D. Therapies that force the client to confront personal problems are the most effective.
96. A researcher chooses twenty works of art and randomly numbers them from 1 to 20. She then asks people to write down the numbers assigned to the three works they like the most out of the 20. What type of scale do these numbers form?
47%, .14. A bad item. If the artworks are randomly assigned to numbers, then the numbers don't carry any implication that one artwork is "more", or "better", or "greater", than another one. So the scale doesn't even qualify as ordinal in nature. And if it's not at least ordinal, then it can't be ratio or interval either (because ratio and interval scales are subsets of ordinal scales). So, it's got to be a categorical (or nominal) scale, with the numbers substituting for the names of the artworks. They're just labels. They don't have any quantitative meaning.
97. In the distribution 1, 1, 2, 2, 3, 3, 3, 4, 4, 5, 5, number 3 is the
D. All of the above.*
93%, .26. The mean is the arithmetic average; the median is the number that divides the distribution in half; and the mode is the most frequent observation.
98. If the line of best fit in a scatter plot is horizontal,
A. the relation between the variables cannot be determined.
B. the variables are negatively correlated.
C. the variables are perfectly positively correlated.
D. the variables are unrelated.*
58%, .31. The fact that you can draw a line of best fit shows that the relation between the variables can, in fact, be determined. The fact that the line of best fit is horizontal means that there is, in fact, no relation between the two variables -- you can't predict one from the other. So, the relation isn't indeterminate: it's been determined that there's no relation.
99. A teacher grades an examination and finds one test paper with an extremely low score. That score is so low that the teacher wonders whether the paper really belonged to one of his own students or whether it somehow accidentally slipped in from another class. As a first check, the teacher looks at the class mean and the class standard deviation, which are 100 and 5 respectively. Using the standard critical ratio, what is the lowest score that probably came from this class?
65%, .32. Remember "The Rule of 2": Given a normal distribution, such as usually characterizes performance on ability tests, 95% of the observations will lie between two standard deviations above and below the mean. So, we can be 95% confident that a score between 90 and 110 came from the class. An extremely low score, like 50, most likely came from another class.
100. According to Socrates, the unexamined life
A. is a terrible thing to waste.
B. is not worth living.*
C. is just a bowl of cherries.
D. is the best revenge.
83%, .31. This was a throwaway item, intended to bring smiles to your faces as exam period begins, but also to leave you with a thought for vacation. According to Plato, Socrates asserted that "The unexamined life is not worth living" on his deathbed, shortly before drinking the poison hemlock as punishment for corrupting the youth of Athens. Along with the prescription to "Know thyself", also mentioned by Plato, it's a fair summary of Western philosophy and science. "A mind is a terrible thing to waste" is the slogan of the United Negro College Fund, famously mangled by Dan Quayle, Vice-President in the administration of George H.W. Bush (Bush 41, father of Bush 43), who said, instead, that "What a waste it is to lose one's mind. Or not to have a mind is being very wasteful. How true that is." "Life is just a bowl of cherries" is a line from a tune by George Gershwin, sung by Rudy Vallee, among others. 'Living well is the best revenge" comes from George Herbert, a 17th-century English poet.
Retain this exam, along with a record of your answers.
A provisional answer key will be posted to the course website by 3:00 PM today.
The exam will be provisionally scored to identify and eliminate bad items.
The exam will then be rescored with bad items keyed correct for all responses.
Grades will be posted to the course website.
A final, revised, answer key, and analyses of the exam items,
will be posted on the course website.
Requests for rescoring must be received within
two(2) days of the posting of exam grades