University of California, Berkeley
Department of Psychology

Psychology 1
Fall 2006

Final Examination

Final Scoring Key

The preliminary scoring revealed a number of bad items, as well as a number of items that were scored incorrectly, due to errors in creating the scoring key.

  • Item #19, the correct answer is D.
  • Item #22, rescored correct for all responses.
  • Item #24, the correct answer is B.
  • Item #33, rescored correct for all responses.
  • Item #44, the correct answer is A.
  • Item #56, rescored correct for all responses.
  • Item #61, rescored correct for all responses.
  • Item #64, rescored correct for all responses.
  • Item #94, rescored correct for all responses.

If you got any of these items wrong, in terms of the initial scoring key, correct your score as appropriate. Remember, add points for rescored items only if you got them wrong, in terms of the initial scoring key.

In the key that follows, correct answers are marked with an asterisk (*) I also give the item statistics for each question: the percentage of the class that got the item correct, and the item-to-total correlation (rpb).

Performance on the exam was very good, as it was for the midterms. Before rescoring, the mean score on the exam was 65.13, with a standard deviation of 13.48. After rescoring, the mean was raised to 70.87, with a standard deviation of 14.18, or 71% correct.

A later version of the key will provide item analyses and explanations for each item.

Choose the best answer to each of the following 100 questions. Questions are drawn from the text and lectures in roughly equal proportions, with the understanding that there is considerable overlap between the two sources. Usually, only one question is drawn from each major section of each chapter of the required readings; again, sometimes this question also draws on material discussed in class. Read the entire exam through before answering any questions: sometimes one question will help you answer another one.

Most questions can be correctly answered in one of two ways: (1) by fact-retrieval, meaning that you remember the answer from your reading of the text or listening to the lecture; or (2) inference, meaning that you can infer the answer from some general principle discussed in the text or lecture. If you cannot determine the correct answer by either of these methods, try to eliminate at least one option as clearly wrong: this maximizes the likelihood that you will get the correct answer by chance. Also, go with your intuitions: if you have actually done the assigned readings and attended the lectures, your "informed guesses" will likely be right more often than they are wrong.

Be sure you are using a red Scantron sheet.

Fill in the appropriate circles with a #2 pencil only.

Be sure you put your name on the front of the red Scantron sheet.

Be sure you put your Student ID# on both sides of the red Scantron sheet.

Use the first eight (8) columns: No leading zeroes.

Indicate Exam 003 (use all three digits) on the reverse side of the red Scantron sheet.

Retain this exam, along with a record of your answers.

Noncumulative Portion

1. What happens to many infantile reflexes over time?

a. They grow more forceful.

b. They grow more sensitive.

c. They become easier to elicit.

d. They disappear.*

76% correct, item-to-total rpb = .37. Reflexes are part of the innate behavior equipment that the newborn infant brings into the world. But adult behavior is dominated by voluntary responses, not involuntary ones. So, infantile reflexes gradually disappear. But not completely: next time you're snuggling with your BF or GF, stroke their cheek near the corners of their mouth, and you're likely to see the vestiges of the rooting reflex.

2. In one study, cells in a very early-stage salamander embryo that would have developed into skin were transplanted to the embryo's mouth region. The results were that the transplanted cells

a. became teeth, as was appropriate for their new location.*

b. developed into skin, as was appropriate for their original location but not for their new location.

c. remained undifferentiated.

d. died, leaving the salamander to develop without a section of skin and teeth.

82%, rpb = .48. Each cell carries its own genetic program, but that program -- like all genetic programs -- interacts with its environment -- in this case, the cellular environment -- to develop into a phenotype. Thus, a skin cell transplanted into an embryo's mouth region will likely develop into some "mouth" structure, like teeth. This is the basis for stem-cell treatments.

3. Object permanence refers to the child's awareness that

a. a variety of actions can be coordinated into one organized schema.

b. the mass of an object does not change despite transformations in the shape of the object.

c. objects exist independent of one's direct perception of them or action upon them.*

d. certain motor patterns can become permanently associated with specific environmental objects.

94%, .33. In Piaget's sensorimotor stage of development, the child believes that objects exist only when it is can see them or touch them. When they're out of sight, or out of reach, they cease to exist. Object permanence, the milestone marking the transition from the sensorimotor stage to the preoperational stage of cognitive development, entails the awareness that objects exist independent of our perception of them.

4. Studies of infants' understanding of occlusion of one object by another suggest that

a. the infant understands that the parts of objects are connected even when hidden.*

b. the infant must have extensive experience with overlapping objects before understanding that the parts of objects remain connected even when hidden.

c. infants at four months of age are not surprised when a rod hidden behind a block is shown to be made up of two separate parts.

d. four-month-old infants lack a sense of object permanence.

82%, .45. Object permanence again, but this time in a "disproof" of Piaget's theory. It turns out that even four-month-old infants do have a primitive understand of occlusion -- that one object can hide another, or parts of another, object from view. But just because the hidden object is out of sight, doesn't mean that it doesn't exist. Even young infants seem to understand that the occluded object continues behind the occluding object. In that respect, they have object permanence even though Piager's theory says they shouldn't.

5. Recent analyses of Piaget's theory of cognitive development have argued that

a. the child's transition from one stage to the next may not be as abrupt as originally proposed by Piaget.*

b. conservation tasks are the only way of evaluating understanding of number in very young children.

c. there are no stages of cognitive development beyond the age of four; once children are about four years of age, their cognitive abilities are qualitatively similar to those of adults.

d. children pass traditional conservation of number tasks shortly after they demonstrate an ability to count.

92%, .45. Piaget argued that the various stages represented quantitative leaps in development, but it turns out that the transition from one stage to another is a lot smoother than he thought it was. So, for example, children don't show conservation all at once. They start by conserving on some tasks but not others, and proceed to deepen and widen the variety of tasks on which they will show conservation. Same with object permanence, numbers, and all the other classic milestones in Piagetian theory.

6. Which of the following inferences is best supported by cross-cultural research?

a. Standard measures of concrete and formal operations may not provide the best way of assessing complex and abstract thinking.*

b. Many nonwestern adults cannot think with any greater complexity or abstractness than can western children.

c. Nonwesterners often respond to classification tasks in ways that make no sense to westerners.

d. Tests of sophisticated reasoning are interchangeable; their specific content is irrelevant to how people from various cultures perform on them.

51%, .34. It turns out that there are important cultural differences in various aspects of cognition. At the same time, just because members of some tribe don't pass the tests of concrete and formal operations devised by Piaget, doesn't mean that they can't perform concrete and formal operations as well as any Swiss child or adolescent. Rather, it's important that tests of cognitive abilities be culturally appropriate. And when we give culturally appropriate tests to nonwestern adults, it turns out that they have a capacity for abstract thought after all. Just like us. So, cultural differences are there, to be sure, but they can be magnified by culturally inappropriate modes of testing.

7. Which of the following statements is true?

a. Both crystallized and fluid intelligence remain relatively stable across the life span.

b. While crystallized intelligence remains relatively stable across the life span, fluid intelligence begins to decline in the 20s.*

c. While fluid intelligence remains relatively stable across the life span, crystallized intelligence begins to decline in the 20s.

d. Both crystallized and fluid intelligence begin to decline in the 20s.

87%, .39. Fluid intelligence is raw intelligence. Crystallized intelligence is book learning. Fluid intelligence may decline as the person ages, making it more difficult to learn new things as s/he grows older. But crystallized intelligence is here to stay -- unless, that is, the person suffers from a dementing illness, such as Alzheimer's disease. But even then, crystallized intelligence tends to hang on.

8. What is the relationship between separation anxiety and attachment?

a. The more attached the child is, the less he feels separation anxiety.

b. If the child is securely attached, then he never feels separation anxiety because he trusts the caregiver to return.

c. The presence of separation anxiety indicates that the child has formed an attachment to the caregiver.*

d. If the child is insecurely attached, then he never feels separation anxiety, since he does not care whether the mother (or father) returns at all.

77%, .10. Children who show separation anxiety do so precisely because they're attached to their parents and other caregivers. If they weren't attached, they wouldn't be bothered by the prospect of separation.

9. According to Ainsworth, the reaction of securely attached infants to the departure and return of their mother in the Strange Situation is to show

a. some distress when she leaves and enthusiasm when she returns.*

b. little distress when she leaves and mild pleasure when she returns.

c. little distress when she leaves and little interest when she returns.

d. considerable distress when she leaves and enthusiasm when she returns.

76, .47. In the Strange Situation, the child is separated from his or her mother, and has to deal with an stranger. Under these circumstances, securely attached children will show some degree of distress when Mom leaves. But not a lot of distress, because they are secure in their attachment to her. And they like it when she comes back, precisely because they're attached to her already. There's attachment to the father, too, by the way -- though the patterns of attachment differ in important ways.

10. Anthropological studies suggest that societies whose dominant means of livelihood is through agriculture as opposed to hunting stress which of the following values as they raise their children?

a. self-reliance and initiative

b. conformity and responsibility*

c. religiousness and respect for tradition

d. generosity and tolerance

74%, .43. Different cultures tend to raise different kinds of kids. Agricultural societies tend to produce children who are high in conformity and responsibility. Hunter-gather societies tend to produce children who have a lot of self-reliance and initiative.But even within a culture, there are differences in the kinds of children produced by authoritative, authoritarian, permissive, and indifferent parenting styles.

11. What effect does spanking have on the moral development of the child?

a. It has no effect.

b. It seems to make the child more morally rigid.

c. It makes the child more likely, when an adult, to endorse capital punishment as a just response to murder.

d. It seems to lead to a decreased internalization of a moral code.*

56%, .38. This is one paradox of punishment (the other is that spanking merely models physical violence for the misbehaving child. But with a reliance on spanking, the child complies out of a fear of punishment, instead of developing a sense of what the rules are.

12. Men and women do differ in some personality traits, behaviors, and even abilities. At the same time, it is important to bear in mind that:

a. almost all the differences between the sexes are relatively small in magnitude.

b. men and women are, overall, more alike than they are different.

c. findings describing the average of a group can't be used to characterize individuals within that group.

d. All of the above answers are correct.*

88%, .19. Yes, there are some differences, in average, between men and women: men tend to be better at math and spatial relations, women tend to be better in verbal skills. But that's about it. And the differences are very small, accounting for less than 5% of the variance in these abilities. There are plenty of women with excellent spatial skills, and plenty of men with excellent verbal skills. Put another way, there is almost as much variance within each gender as there is between genders.

13. Erikson's "identity crisis" refers to

a. a rare, temporary type of amnesia brought about by the hormonal changes of puberty.

b. attempts to determine what kind of person one really is and wants to be.*

c. attempts to determine one's gender identity.

d. confusion brought about by the heavy drinking and drug use sometimes seen among adolescents.

83%, .33. Of Erikson's "Eight Ages of Man", this is the one that affects adolescents and young adults, so it's probably closest to your hearts!,

14. Researchers believe that severe fear reactions suffered in childhood cause a certain mental disorder. A new discovery shows that the disorder is really caused by the lack of a specific enzyme. The disorder will now change in classification from what to what?

a. somatogenic to psychogenic

b. hysterical to psychoanalytic

c. psychoanalytic to pathological

d. psychogenic to somatogenic*

85%, .41. Somatogenic theories attribute mental illnesses to biological causes, like genetic or hormonal defects. Psychogenic theories attribute mental illnesses to psychological causes, like mental trauma or a history of fear conditioning. Psychoanalysis is a particular form of psychogenic theory, involving infantile sexuality, conflict, anxiety, and repression.

15. Gender has been identified as a risk factor for:

a. general paresis.

b. posttraumatic stress disorder.

c. depression.*

d. dissociative fugue.

79%, .54. It's just an epidemiological fact that women are at somewhat greater risk for depression than men. One theory is that men are simply less likely to complain of being depressed, and so less likely to receive the diagnosis. But it's also possible that some forms of depression are related to changes in female sex hormone levels.

16. In psychiatric classifications, a syndrome is

a. a pattern of signs and symptoms that usually occur together.*

b. a form of disorganized thinking associated with schizophrenia.

c. the key symptom for identifying each psychiatric disorder.

d. a mental disorder that causes physical damage.

93%, .42. Syndromes are like categories, and signs and symptoms are like features.

17. Research regarding the possible genetic bases of schizophrenia reveals that

a. the concordance rate for identical twins is higher than for fraternal twins.

b. children born of schizophrenic mothers and adopted by nonschizophrenic mothers are more likely to be schizophrenic than adopted children of nonschizophrenic mothers.

c. the incidence of schizophrenia increases the more closely one is related to a schizophrenic individual.

d. All of the above.*

88%, .25. All of these, A-C, are evidence for a genetic diathesis in schizophrenia. The diathesis is not decisive, however, because the concordance rate for schizophrenia in identical (monozygotic) twins is far less than 100%.

18. With respect to the genetic components of mood disorders, it has been shown that

a. concordance rates for both identical and fraternal twins are the same.

b. genetic factors play a stronger role in bipolar than unipolar disorder.*

c. mood disorders are generally inherited through matrilineal descent.

d. the same genetic factors give rise to both uni- and bipolar disorders.

67%, .38. What goes for schizophrenia also goes for the affective disorders, but the MZ concordance rate for bipolar disorder (also known as manic-depressive illness) is substantially higher than for unipolar disorder (depression).

19. What is the main difference between generalized anxiety disorder and panic disorder?

a. Panic disorder involves specific objects or events while generalized anxiety disorder does not.

b. Panic disorder is chronic while generalized anxiety disorder is not.

c. Generalized anxiety disorder is brought on by stress while panic disorder is not.

d. Panic disorder is intermittent while generalized anxiety disorder is not.*

59%, .35. Panic disorder is like phobia, in that it is elicited by certain kinds of objects and situations. In contrast, generalized anxiety disorder is -- well, generalized: the patient feels anxious under lots of different circumstances.And panic disorder comes and goes, while anxiety disorder is pretty much always with the patient.

20. Which of the following describes the interaction between dissociative disorders and memories of childhood abuse?

a. Dissociative disorders always cause false memories of childhood abuse.

b. Childhood abuse always causes dissociative disorders.

c. We do not know for certain whether dissociative disorders make false memories of abuse more likely or if abuse leads to dissociative disorders.*

d. Dissociative disorders and childhood abuse are unrelated.

94%, .21. A prominent theory links dissociative disorders to child abuse, and suggests a treatment in which patients are helped to remember traumatic evens from their childhood. But the evidence for a causal role of child abuse in the dissociative disorders is very weak, and it is possible that patients with dissociative disorder have false (incorrect) memories of having been abused.

21. Childhood autism appears to involve:

a. high levels of energy and impulsivity.

b. overwhelming feelings of helplessness and hopelessness.

c. low levels of measured intelligence (IQ).

d. an inability to understand other people's feelings and desires.*

67%, .29. A prominent theory of autism holds that autistic children lack a theory of mind: their inability to understand others' mental states -- their beliefs, feelings, and desires -- leads them to behave the way they do.

22. Personality disorders such as antisocial personality differ from "Axis I" clinical syndromes such as schizophrenia in that:

a. "Axis I" syndromes generally have genetic or hormonal causes, while the personality disorders are learned.

b. personality disorders lie at the extreme ends of a continuum that includes normal behavior.*

c. personality disorders involve medical conditions that affect psychological functioning.

d. personality disorders are culture-specific.

42%, .18.A bad item. As a general rule, the "Axis I" syndromes involve specific signs and symptoms that are quantitatively different from normal behavior. Normal people may imagine things, but they don't hallucinate; normal people may have funny beliefs, but these don't amount to delusions. But individuals with personality disorders seem to be more extreme than normals on various dimensions.

23. Antipsychotic drugs have drawbacks as well as advantages when they are used to treat schizophrenia; for example, these drugs

a. only relieve symptoms while they are being taken.

b. neither cure the disease nor alter its progress.

c. have serious side effects.

d. All of the above.*

97%, .14. The antipsychotic drugs can provide substantial symptom relief, but they don't get at the underlying pathology that causes the symptoms to occur in the first place. After the medications are discontinued, the symptoms are likely to return -- precisely because they don't address the underlying pathology. And even though they ameliorate symptoms, they cause new symptoms, in the form of side-effects.

24. How does cognitive therapy help people suffering from panic disorders?

a. Cognitive therapy teaches the client to relax her body at the onset of a panic attack.

b. Cognitive therapy teaches the client to achieve a more realistic interpretation of her bodily sensations.*

c. Cognitive therapy teaches the client how to use positive thinking and imagery to alleviate panic attacks.

d. Cognitive therapy teaches the client how to use biofeedback to control panic attacks.

59%, .37.

25. Some therapies work better than others for specific disorders. For example,

a. anxiety disorders are best treated using behavior therapies.

b. cognitive therapy is more effective than behavior therapy for panic disorder.

c. psychotherapy is of little use in bipolar disorders.

d. All of the above.*

59%, .07.

26. With respect to the development of traits, attitudes, and behavior, typically:

a. most of the variance is accounted for by genetic factors.

b. the shared environment is more important than the nonshared environment.

c. the nonshared environment is more important than the shared environment.*

d. the shared environment is more important than genetic factors.

82%, .36. There's a genetic component in most personality traits, and even in some attitudes, but when you add the shared and the nonshared environment together, the environment proves even more important. And, of course, the nonshared environment is more important than the shared environment: that's why children from the same family are so different from each other.

27. Children born with a quiet temperament often elicit "lower-limit" control behaviors from their parents. This is an example of a _____ source of within-family difference.

a. child-driven*

b. relationship-driven

c. parent-driven

d. family context

69%, .40. Temperament is a characteristic of the child, which elicits upper-limit or lower-limit control behavior from his or her parents -- the former in the case of a fussy child, the latter in the case of a quiet one. But the process starts with the child, so it's child-driven.

28. In the current Diagnostic and Statistical Manual, mental disorders are defined in terms of:

a. signs and symptoms that are singly necessary and jointly sufficient to define each syndrome.

b. signs and symptoms that are imperfectly correlated with the presence of each syndrome.*

c. causal factors that are somatic in nature.

d. causal factors that are psychological in nature.

49%, .26. The DSM is a classification manual, and the various syndromes are categories of mental illness. The signs and symptoms listed in DSM are the features associated with each category, but they're not defining symptoms, in the sense that every patient with a particular mental illness has all the symptoms listed in the manual. Rather, they are characteristic features, imperfectly correlated with the syndrome, leading to considerable heterogeneity among patients who all carry the same diagnosis.

29. According to the diathesis-stress model of psychopathology:

a. Psychosocial factors determine an individual's vulnerability to mental illness.

b. Biological factors precipitate an acute episode of mental illness.

c. Diathesis is a general predisposition to mental illness, while specific stressors indicate what mental illness will actually occur.

d. Levels of diathesis and stress can "compensate" for each other to determine whether an acute episode will occur.*

34%, .25. Diathesis is a personal factor, whether biological or psychological in nature, that renders an individual vulnerable to a particular form of mental illness. Stress is an environmental factor, again either biological or psychological in nature, that challenges the person's current level of adaptation to the diathesis. Diathesis and stress interact to create an acute episode of mental illness, and they act in a complementary manner: if the levels of diathesis are very high, little stress is needed; if the level of stress is very high, little diathesis is needed.

30. According to the medical model of psychopathology, a cure would:

a. correct the underlying pathology.*

b. shift the illness from the acute to chronic phase.

c. eliminate or reduce signs and symptoms of disease.

d. prevent the patient from going into remission.

62%, .43. Everywhere in medicine, signs and symptoms are caused by underlying pathology; many medications provide symptom relief, but not complete cures, because they don't address the underlying pathology.

31. In terms of "effect size", cognitive-behavioral therapies are generally _____ effective, compared to humanistic and psychodynamic therapies

a. less

b. more*

c. equally

d. None of the above: psychotherapy is generally ineffective, regardless of its form.

78%, .19. Most forms of psychotherapy are effective, in the sense that patients who receive psychotherapy generally do better than those who do not. But of all the various forms of psychotherapy, the cognitive and behavioral therapies tend to be more effective than the psychodynamic or humanistic ones.

32. The unexamined life, as Socrates said, is:

a. its own journey.

b. all beer and skittles.

c. short, while art is long.

d. not worth living.*

92%, .35. A throwaway item, perhaps, but a good slogan to live by.

33. On a personality inventory, Ozzie says "true" to 8 items on a 20-item scale of neuroticism, while Harriet says "true" to 12 items. So, Ozzie gets a neuroticism score of 8, while Harriet gets a score of 12. The resulting measure of neuroticism is a _____ scale.

a. categorical

b. ordinal

c. interval*

d. ratio scale

21%, .02. A bad item. In categorical scales, numbers merely name variables, as in "Group 1" or "Group 2". In ordinal scales, numbers represent low or high values of some variable, but not much more than that. Most psychological scales are interval scales, permitting values to be added and subtracted. But very few psychological scales have a true zero point, permitting multiplication and division as well.

34. Consider the following distribution of scores: 5, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 9, 9, 11, and 11. The median of this distribution is:

a. 8.0

b. 8.5.*

c. 9.0

d. none of the above.

82%, .28. The mean, or average, is 8. The median, or the point that divides the distribution exactly in half, is 8.5. The mode, or the most frequent observation, is 9.

35. Two variables are positively correlated with each other. Inspection of the scatterplot will show that the line of best fit:

a. slopes upward from the left to the right.*

b. slopes downward from the left to the right.

c. is vertical.

d. is horizontal.

94%, .29. A scatterplot plots one variable on the X-axis, and another variable on the Y axis, with the two axes meeting at the zero point. If two variables are positively correlated, low scores on one variable will be associated with low scores on the other, and high scores on one variable will be associated with high scores on the other. Therefore, the line of best fit will run from the lower left of the scatterplot, near the zero point, to the upper right of the scatterplot. And if you draw an envelope around the points, the correlation between the two variables will reflect the shape of the envelope: if the correlation is low, the envelope will be fat; if the correlation is high, the envelope will be skinny. This is just about the only time you want to get a thin envelope!

36. IQ is measured on a scale that has a mean of 100 and a standard deviation of 15. Accordingly, an individual randomly selected from the population would be expected to have an IQ less than 70 approximately _____ of the time.

a. 2.5%.*

b. 5%.

c. 10%.

d. the answer cannot be determined from the information given.

57%, .37. Remember The Rule of 68, 95, and 99: in a normal distribution, 95% of the observations will fall within 2 standard deviations of the mean. The remaining 5% will be distributed half above the mean, and half below the mean. That means that roughly 2.5% of the population will have an IQ less than 70, meeting the IQ criterion for a diagnosis of mental retardation.

Cumulative Portion

37. A big, hairy dog is in a room comfortably heated to 65 degrees Fahrenheit. Its hypothalamus is warmed experimentally. How will the dog respond?

a. It will shiver and its body temperature will go up.

b. It will shiver and experience vasodilatation.

c. It will pant and its body temperature will go up.

d. It will pant and experience vasodilatation.*

67%, .39. One function of the hypothalamus is to regulate body temperature. If the hypothalamus is warmed, the animal will engage in behaviors, like vasodilation (dilating the blood vessels) that will tend to cool it off. The animal will also pant, for the same reason, but of course its body temperature will go down. If the hypothalamus is cooled, the animal will feel cold, and will engage in behaviors (like vasoconstriction and shivering) that will tend to warm it up.

38. What does the "thrifty gene" hypothesis propose?

a. Those predisposed to obesity would have survived better in the world of our ancestors than would those predisposed to thinness.*

b. Those predisposed to thinness would have survived better in the world of our ancestors than would those predisposed to obesity.

c. Those predisposed to obesity are better suited to today's affluent cultures than are those predisposed to thinness.

d. Those predisposed to obesity and those predisposed to thinness are equally well suited to today's affluent cultures.

77%, .31. But they wouldn't have been obese. Rather, they would have normal, appropriate body mass. It's just that evolution hasn't prepared us for a diet rich in carbohydrates and other things that tend to make us fat.

39. Cannon argued that sympathetic arousal serves as an emergency reaction that mobilizes the organism for "fight or flight." Why was this explanation deemed too simplistic?

a. When threatened, organisms often respond with actions other than "fight or flight."*

b. Fight or flight reactions are often counterproductive to survival.

c. Both excitatory and inhibitory neurotransmitters are released during sympathetic arousal.

d. Both excitatory and vegetative functions (such as the inhibition of digestion) can occur during sympathetic arousal.

43%, .31. Animals don't just fight or flee when stressed. They also tend and befriend. Fight or flight is a stress response that is characteristic of males (at least, the male rats that Cannon studied), but female rats tend to tend and befriend.

40. In terms of sexual behavior in animals, researchers believe that the behavioral effects of testosterone and estrogen are mediated by receptors in what area of the brain?

a. the cerebral cortex

b. the autonomic nervous system

c. the thalamus

d. the hypothalamus*

52%, .29. When it comes to motivation, it usually comes down to the hypothalamus -- and that's true for social motives like sex and parenting, as it is true for survival motives like hunger and thirst.

41. Let's say person Y suffers a stroke and is, as a result, unable to speak. Chances are good that the damage is located

a. in the pons.

b. in the medulla.

c. in the left hemisphere.*

d. in the amygdala.

84%, .40. Remember that for most people, language functions are lateralized to the left hemisphere. That's where Broca's and Wernicke's areas are located.

42. On which lobe should an electrode be placed to record the most electrical activity in response to a pinch of the left big toe?

a. left parietal

b. right frontal

c. left frontal

d. right parietal*

82%, .34. The motor area is in the frontal lobe, and somatosensory area is in the parietal lobe. But remember the principle of contralateral projection: the left hemisphere receives sensory inputs from the right side of the body, and controls the movements of the right side of the body, while the right hemisphere receives inputs from, and controls, the left side of the body.

43. Which of the following cannot be used for signaling the intensity of a stimulus?

a. the type of neuron activated (e.g., low vs. high threshold neurons)

b. the number of neurons activated

c. amplitude of action potentials*

d. the frequency of firing along axons

58%, .35. Neurons fire in an all-or-none fashion: either it fires or it doesn't, which rules out Option C. Some neurons have a higher threshold for discharge than others (Option A). Moreover, a high-intensity stimulus will elicit more rapid firing of single neurons (temporal summation, Option D), or elicit activity of a number of different neurons (spatial summation, Option B).

44. A fundamental difference between the endocrine and nervous systems is the

a. distance the chemicals must travel to have an effect.*

b. types of chemicals used as transmitters.

c. means by which messages travel from one cell to another (chemical vs. electrical).

d. presence vs. absence of target organs.

37%, .29. The same substance can serve as both a neurotransmitter in the nervous system, and as a hormone in the endocrine system.

45. What learned contingency is most important in classical conditioning?

a. if CS, then US and if not CS, then not US*

b. if CS, then CR and if not CS, then not CR

c. if US, then UR and if not US, then not UR

d. if US, then CS and if not US, then not CS

68%, .35. The contingency is typically between the CS and the US. So, in order to predict the US, the organism takes account of the number of trials on which the presence of the CS is associated with the presence of the US, and the number of trials in which the absence of the CS is associated with the absence of the US. In some instances, like Garcia's taste-aversion experiment, you can make the case that the contingency is between the CS and the UR, because an X-ray US cannot be felt by any sensory system. But that's not one of the options in this question.

46. Why do variable-ratio reinforcement schedules produce such high rates of responding?

a. There is uncertainty as to when the reward will be forthcoming.*

b. The organism knows with certainty it will be rewarded.

c. Regular reinforcement produces a high level of compliance.

d. Both b and c.

46%, .47. In a variable-ratio reinforcement schedule

47. According to the principle of preparedness or belongingness, which of the following would be the most difficult to do?

a. train a pigeon to flap its wings to avoid shock

b. train a rat to associate a flashing light with nausea*

c. train a pigeon to peck a piano key to get a food reward

d. train a cat to rub your legs to get you to open a can of cat food

67%, .38.The easiest behaviors to train in an instrumental conditioning experiment are those that capitalize on the species' innate behavioral tendencies. For pigeons, that's flapping their wings, to fly away from danger; or to peck a piano key to get food, because pigeons innately peck in the presence of food. For cats, that's rubbing a human's legs, because nuzzling is one way that infant cats get their mothers to feed them. But, as Garcia showed so powerfully, it's very hard to get a rat -- a nocturnal animal with not very good vision to begin with -- to connect an exteroceptive stimulus, like sound or light, with a gastrointestinal experience, like nausea. Tastes and nausea, yes: rats are naturally taste feeders. Sights and sounds and nausea, no.

48. Even though learning varies from species to species, there is one factor that contributes to learning that is shared by all species. What is this one factor?

a. neural plasticity*

b. visual acuity

c. spatial memory

d. reproduction

55%, .29.

49. Sounds in the environment enter the ear and cause a membrane in the inner ear to vibrate. In the case of audition, what does vibration of the inner ear membrane represent?

a. the proximal stimulus*

b. the distal stimulus

c. a measure of adaptation

d. a neural basis for the tabula rasa

79%, .33.

50. Most psychologists believe that there are at least __________ different skin sensations. They are __________.

a. three; pressure, temperature, and pain

b. three; pressure, warmth, and cold

c. four; pressure, itch, temperature, and pain

d. four; pressure, warmth, cold, and pain*

44%, .23.

51. The fact that a blow to the ear can result in an auditory stimulus ("ringing of the ear") is consistent with which theory or concept?

a. the concept of an absolute threshold for sensation

b. M´┐Żller's doctrine of specific nerve energies*

c. Fechner's rules for measuring sensation intensity

d. the concept embodied in Weber's law

60%, .40.

52. If one wants to see an object in dim light conditions, how should one orient one's eyes?

a. so that the object projects an image on the fovea

b. so that the object projects an image on the periphery of the retina*

c. so that the object projects an image on the area where the optic nerve exits the retina

d. so that the object projects an image on cone-shaped receptors

45%, .27.

53. Which of the following is a binocular cue of depth?

a. texture gradients

b. motion parallax

c. retinal disparity*

d. interposition

59%, .46.

54. Which of the following provides the most convincing evidence that there must be a mechanism that serves to stabilize the physical world when one's eyes move voluntarily?

a. We are able to perceive the difference between an object that is stationary and one that is moving.

b. The world seems to jump to the left if, when your eye muscles are paralyzed, you try to move your eyes to the right.*

c. When things in your visual field move in one direction, you often feel that you are moving in the opposite direction, even though you are actually stationary.

d. When you move one way, objects in the foreground seem to zoom by, whereas those objects farther away seem to move at a more leisurely pace.

76%, .48.

55. Reversible figures like the face/vase display make it clear that

a. seeing is believing.

b. the stimulus itself is neutral with regard to parsing.*

c. the perception of features precedes the perception of form.

d. parsing is always a conscious process.

62%, .35.

56. Which is an example of a higher-order invariant in size constancy?

a. the size of an object's retinal image

b. the actual size of the image out in the world

c. the apparent size of the object as the subject perceives it

d. the ratio between the retinal size of the object and the retinal size of a stimulus in the background*

50%, .02.A bad item.

57. Why are tests of recognition typically easier than tests of recall?

a. Only working memory is needed to store the material for recognition tests.

b. Recall is usually limited to about five to seven items.

c. Recall, but not recognition, requires consolidation.

d. Recognition tests usually provide better retrieval cues.*

90%, .42.

58. As you work on a complex multiplication problem in your head, the numbers you are manipulating are in your __________ memory, and the multiplication tables you are drawing on belong to the category of __________.

a. working; procedural

b. working; declarative*

c. long-term; declarative

d. long-term; procedural

42%, .25.

59. When does mental imagery result in the best facilitation of recall?

a. when the subject can mentally place each of the items in a different spatial location

b. in paired associate learning

c. when the image acts to unify the individual component items*

d. when the image degrades a chunk into its component parts

46%, .20.

60. Why is elaborative rehearsal effective?

a. Like maintenance rehearsal, elaborative rehearsal increases the amount of time material is in working memory.

b. Elaborative rehearsal increases the number of retrieval cues linked to the item.*

c. Elaborative rehearsal leads to shallower processing, which improves memory.

d. Elaborative rehearsal makes use of mnemonic devices, which improve memory.

79%, .38.

61. Patients who, because of a stroke, lose the ability to perceive color, also seem to

a. lose the ability to recognize faces.

b. lose the ability to dream in color.

c. lose the ability to imagine color scenes.*

d. lose the ability to see in low-light conditions.

43%, .17. A bad item.

62. Propositions

a. can't be said to be either true or false.

b. relate a subject and a predicate.*

c. are analogical representations.

d. are combinations of concepts by association.

53%, .35.

63. There are two main states that exist in problem solving: the __________ state and the ___________ state.

a. initial; goal*

b. primary; secondary

c. ill-defined; well-defined

d. puzzle; solution

89%, .38.

64. Mechanic Lucy believes that the best way to correct a faulty distributor is to think about the things most likely to be wrong and to check those first. What judgment heuristic is she using?

a. Representativeness

b. Availability

c. Simulation*

d. Anchoring and Adjustment

21%, -.05. A bad item, but the answer's really clear. She's thinking about things that are likely to be wrong -- that is, imagining things. That means she's relying on simulation. But many of you went for availability, which involves remembering rather than imagining.

65. The word breadwinner contains __________ morphemes.

a. two

b. three*

c. eight

d. eleven

81%, .37.Phonemes are the basic units of sound in a language. Morphemes are the basic units of meaning. There are three of these: bread, referring to a thing you eat; win, referring to an action you do to bread; and -er, referring to the person who does the winning.

66. What is true of the prototype theory of meaning?

a. A prototype embodies the defining features that are necessary and sufficient to classify something as a member of a category.

b. A prototype embodies many but not necessarily all of the features that characterize a class.*

c. A prototype allows us to form a mental image of all of the features necessary to characterize a class.

d. A prototype is an internal representation of all of the features necessary to characterize a class.

56%, .30.

67. What can be said about an infant's ability to distinguish sounds?

a. Learning to distinguish between phonemes that are not specific to one's native language is essential to language development.

b. Infants lose the ability to distinguish between phonemes that are not specific to their native language by the time they are about twelve months old.*

c. Infants learn to distinguish between phonemes that are not specific to their native language by the time they are about twelve months old.

d. Both a and c are correct.

38%, .29.

68. What does research on language acquisition in deaf individuals indicate?

a. No system of functional communication can be developed in the absence of auditory stimuli.

b. Sign language is unlike spoken language because it has few morphemes and it lacks syntactical structure.

c. Similar developmental stages exist for the acquisition of sign language in deaf children and spoken language in hearing children.*

d. Sign language only permits very primitive and basic communication between individuals.

94%, .31.

69. Research on attributions indicates that people from

a. collectivist cultures tend to make more dispositional attributions than do people from individualist cultures.

b. collectivist cultures are unwilling to make attributions.

c. individualist and collectivist cultures do not differ in their tendency to make dispositional or situational attributions.

d. collectivist cultures tend to make more situational attributions than do people from individualist cultures.*

74%, .36.

70. The content of the self-schema varies from one culture to the next. For instance, when asked to complete the statement "I am . . . ," Japanese students are more likely than American students to mention

a. traits like "smart."

b. roles like "a sister."*

c. mood states like "happy."

d. nationality like "Japanese."

64%, .49.

71. According to self-perception theory, we come to know ourselves

a. through processes that are fundamentally different from those we use to learn about others.

b. by applying to our own behavior the same rules of inference we use in interpreting and understanding the behavior of others.*

c. intuitively, and by watching the reactions of others to us.

d. All of the above.

56%, .45.

72. In Schachter and Singer's experiment on emotion,

a. participants informed of true drug effects showed more emotion than other participants.

b. participants misinformed of drug effects showed less emotion than other participants.

c. informed and misinformed participants showed the same amount of emotion.

d. participants informed of true drug effects showed less emotion than other participants.*

38%, .26.

73. The results of a standard Asch line-judgment task compared to one in which the lines are difficult to distinguish indicate that

a. a dissenting minority cannot withstand the opinion of the majority.

b. social comparison is especially important in ambiguous situations.*

c. uncertainty increases emotional disturbance.

d. the greater the ambiguity of stimuli, the greater the rigidity of responses.

55%, .42.

74. Which of the following factors makes groupthink more likely?

a. a highly cohesive group*

b. a group in constant communication about their discussions with people outside of the group

c. a group structured to require the examination of all sides of each issue

d. all of the above

64%, .48.

75. People often remain inactive in emergency situations because

a. situations are often ambiguous.

b. people look to other observers and see that they are calm.

c. responsibility for action is diffused among all observers.

d. All of the above.*

77%, .36.

76. The idea that opposites attract seems to be

a. generally untrue.*

b. true with respect to beliefs, but not with respect to personality characteristics.

c. true with respect to personality characteristics, but not with respect to beliefs or opinions.

d. true with respect to personality characteristics, but not with respect to social status or religion.

75%, .43.

77. According to Darwin, what provides the set of options from which natural selection "selects"?

a. variability within a species*

b. trait transmission

c. environmental changes

d. the dominant trait within a group

70%, .49.

78. An individual's scores on intelligence tests typically

a. vary a great deal in childhood and then stabilize in adulthood.

b. remain remarkably stable from childhood through adulthood.*

c. remain stable through childhood and then vary widely in early adulthood before stabilizing in later adulthood.

d. rise from childhood through early adulthood, then stabilize and eventually begin to decrease.

59%, .31.

79. Studies of changes in intelligence as a function of aging suggest that

a. both fluid and crystallized intelligence tend to decline with age in adults.

b. fluid intelligence tends to decline with age in adults but crystallized intelligence does not.*

c. crystallized intelligence tends to decline with age in adults but fluid intelligence does not.

d. neither fluid nor crystallized intelligence declines with age in adults.

88%, .34.

80. Which of the following is the best evidence for a genetic contribution to intelligence?

a. The high correlation between intelligence scores of close biological relatives.

b. The fact that aptitude test scores of identical twins reared together tend to be more highly correlated than the scores of identical twins reared apart

c. The fact that intelligence scores of identical twins tend to be more similar than those of fraternal twins*

d. The fact that intelligence scores of fraternal twins tend to be more similar than those of non-twin siblings

77%, .41.

81. The notion that human behavior is largely determined by the characteristics of the situation one finds oneself in than by the person him- or herself is called

a. humanism.

b. social learning theory.

c. situationism.*

d. contextualism.

81%, .33.

82. The "dynamics" in the psychoanalytic term "psychodynamics" most clearly refer to the

a. inevitable conflict between different family members during a child's first five to six years of life.

b. relations among the various psychological forces hidden within an individual.*

c. differences in temperament among individuals.

d. observations that the behavior of normal people is filled with meaningful activities, whereas that of people with major problems seems to be less active and meaningful.

88%, .37.

83. In comparing the views of contemporary social learning theorists with those of behaviorists and trait theorists, social learning theorists

a. are much more interested in cognitive processes than behaviorists or trait theorists.

b. are like behaviorists in that they emphasize the role of situational factors in behavior.

c. are unlike trait theorists, in that they do not assume that personality attributes are built-in or genetic.

d. All of the above.*

76%, .27.

84. Unlike Sigmund Freud, Maslow and Rogers believed that people

a. will grow to realize their inherent potentials if given the appropriate conditions.*

b. have an innate potential for evil that must be restrained by society.

c. respond only mechanistically to environmental events.

d. None of the above.

70%, .26.

85. Why do preschool children fail to conserve, according to Piaget?

a. They are too egocentric.

b. They have not yet begun to accommodate schemas to experience.

c. They lack object permanence.

d. They can't interrelate different dimensions of an experience.*

45%, .41.

86. Recent studies on children's understanding of number indicate that

a. Piaget was correct in arguing that this concept is not acquired until late in the preoperational stage.

b. this understanding appears at about the age of four, several years earlier than Piaget expected.

c. some numerical understanding has been observed in infants less than seven months of age.*

d. this concept seems to be acquired nearly a year later than Piaget predicted.

74%, .45.

87. Which of the following statements regarding theory of mind in preschoolers is true?

a. It makes no sense to speak of preschoolers having theories.

b. Preschoolers have some ability to understand and predict the behavior of others.*

c. Preschoolers may have a rudimentary theory of mind, but they do not seem to have theories in any other domain.

d. The "theory" in "theory of mind" has no relation to the theories that scientists hold.

86%, .32.

88. The development of autobiographical memory

a. is biologically preprogrammed to unfold at the same time in all children.

b. is determined by the child's general memory capacity.

c. is shaped by conversations about life events that the child participates in.*

d. takes place in a discrete stage of cognitive development.

82%, .45.

89. Harlow reared monkeys with two artificial "mothers," one terrycloth and one wire. When only the wire mother provided food, the baby monkeys

a. seemed fearful and confused by the two mothers.

b. developed abnormalities in social relations which were not present if it was the terrycloth mother that provided the milk.

c. preferred the wire mother most of the time, especially when frightened.

d. showed a strong preference for the terrycloth mother.*

79%, .45.

90. Strange Situation research with children from two-parent families reveals that

a. young children typically develop strong attachment to both parents.*

b. attachment to the father generally develops about a year after attachment to the mother.

c. young children typically develop strong attachments only to the primary caregiver.

d. young children typically develop strong attachments only to the mother, regardless of which parent is the primary caregiver.

42%, .39.Just as Harlow found that monkeys didn't just become attached to the "mother" who fed them, so children don't just become attached to the person who mostly takes care of them. Kids bond with both their mothers and their fathers, though the precise nature of the bonds will differ.

91. According to Lawrence Kohlberg, moral reasoning at the highest level relies upon

a. the ability to anticipate the opinions of others.

b. personal moral principles.*

c. a concern with punishment and reward.

d. adherence to a code of "law and order."

70%, .31.The highest level, Kohlberg's Level 6, relies on abstract principles to reason about moral issues. The analogy is to Piaget's stage of formal operations, which also entails abstract reasoning.

92. Before the age of five or six, children typically fail to recognize

a. the permanent nature of gender.*

b. the different genders of their parents.

c. the different social roles of the two sexes.

d. their own gender.

55%, .41.

93. The first major impetus for the idea that at least some mental disorders are psychogenic came from cases of

a. psychopathic personality.

b. general paresis.

c. schizophrenia.

d. hysteria.*

49%, .30.

94. Emotional blunting, apathy, lack of speech, and the inability to experience pleasure are

a. positive symptoms of schizophrenia.

b. negative symptoms of schizophrenia.*

c. positive symptoms of affective disorder.

d. negative symptoms of affective disorder.

36%, .17. A bad item.

95. A revised learned helplessness model attributes depression to an explanatory style that attributes negative events to __________ causes.

a. stable, global, and internal*

b. unstable, local, and internal

c. stable, local, and external

d. stable, global, and external

50%, .43.

96. How does the preparedness theory of phobias explain the high incidence of some types of phobias?

a. People do not prepare themselves properly when faced with something that frightens them.

b. Evolution favors those creatures with a built-in fear of dangerous things, like snakes or spiders.*

c. Society prepares people to be afraid of dangerous things like snakes.

d. None of the above.

80%, .55.

97. The theory behind why antipsychotic drugs seem to work focuses on which neurotransmitter system?

a. GABA

b. Dopamine*

c. acetylcholine

d. norepinephrine

77%, .32.

98. MAO inhibitors and tricyclic antidepressants

a. seem to work by decreasing the amount of norepinephrine and serotonin available for synaptic transmission.

b. seem to work by increasing the amount of norepinephrine and serotonin available for synaptic transmission.*

c. increase levels of dopamine in certain locations in the brain.

d. reduce levels of dopamine in certain locations in the brain.

76%, .34.

99. Which of the following is of least interest to a behavior therapist?

a. past history

b. current circumstances

c. unconscious thoughts*

d. overt behavior

70%, .19.

100. A simple "before and after" test of a new drug is inadequate because

a. people differ in the ways they respond to drugs.

b. mentally ill participants may forget to take their medication unless supervised.

c. spontaneous improvements may be attributed to the drug.*

d. improvements might not occur until after the second testing.

47%, .43.

Retain this exam, along with a record of your answers.

A provisional answer key will be posted to the course website by 3:00 PM today.

The exam will be provisionally scored to identify and eliminate bad items.

The exam will then be rescored with bad items keyed correct for all responses.

Grades will be posted to the course website.

A final, revised, answer key, and analyses of the exam items,

will be posted on the course website when grades are posted.

Requests for rescoring must be received within

two (2) days of the posting of grades.