Department of Psychology
Scoring Key and Item Analysis
In the scoring key that follows, correct answers are marked with a double asterisk (**).
On the preliminary scoring of the exam, the mean score was 67.62, with a standard deviation of 12.11, which is right in the middle of the 65-70% window that is the minimum for me. However, the item analysis yielded some bad, and some other difficult items.
Item #56 was miskeyed: the correct answer is A, not B.
Items #10, 11, 26, 29, 35, 38, 49 were identified as bad items, and were rescored correct for all responses.
Items #1, 39, 70, and 84 had multiple acceptable answers, and were rescored appropriately.
In this final edition of the feedback I provide more detailed information, including the results of the item analysis and commentary.
Choose the best answer to each of the following 100 questions. Questions are drawn from the text and lectures in roughly equal proportions, with the understanding that there is considerable overlap between the two sources. Usually, only one question is drawn from each major section of each chapter of the required readings; again, sometimes this question also draws on material discussed in class. Read the entire exam through before answering any questions: sometimes one question will help you answer another one.
Most questions can be correctly answered in one of two ways: (1) by fact-retrieval, meaning that you remember the answer from your reading of the text or listening to the lecture; or (2) inference, meaning that you can infer the answer from some general principle discussed in the text or lecture. If you cannot determine the correct answer by either of these methods, try to eliminate at least one option as clearly wrong: this maximizes the likelihood that you will get the correct answer by chance. Also, go with your intuitions: if you have actually done the assigned readings and attended the lectures, your "informed guesses" will likely be right more often than they are wrong.
Be sure you are using a red Scantron sheet.
Fill in the appropriate circles with a #2 pencil only.
Be sure you put your name on the front of the red Scantron sheet.
Be sure you put your Student ID# on both sides of the red Scantron sheet.
Indicate Exam 003 (use all three digits) on the reverse side of the red Scantron sheet.
Retain this exam, along with a record of your answers.
1. Pregnant mothers read aloud to their unborn infants from one of two Dr. Seuss books. Later, as newborns, the babies could hear the story they had been read by sucking on a pacifier in a particular manner. By sucking on the pacifier in a different way, they could hear an unfamiliar story. What did the researchers find?
a. The infants displayed no preference for the story to which they had been exposed.
b. The infants preferred the story to which they had been exposed. **
c. The infants displayed no preference for the story to which they had been exposed.
d. The infants preferred the story to which they had been exposed. **
89% of the class got this item correct; item-to-total rpb = .18. Every exam has to have a typographical error, if for no other reason than to remind us that we all make mistakes. This was a particularly good one, because there were two errors, such that options A and C, and options B and D, were identical. We accepted both B and D. Sound waves can propagate through the abdomen, and it turns out that -- once the fetus has achieved a certain level of neural development, sounds can be processed (to some extent) and recorded in memory. That doesn't mean that the neonate understands the story, or that the infant consciously remembers anything about the earlier episode. But what seems to happen is that there's a kind of implicit memory formed by the fetus, that affects the newborn's listening behavior. I suspect that this implicit memory is strongly perceptual in nature, and that you wouldn't get the same effect if the material had been presented in different voices on the two occasions, but that's a technical detail. The important thing is that, at a certain stage of fetal development, some kind of (implicit) perception seems to go on.
2. In a recent study, 18-month-olds watched an experimenter show pleasure after eating broccoli and distaste after eating crackers. When the experimenter then asked the children for more food, the children typically offered __________.
a. whichever food they themselves preferred, as predicted by Piaget's claims of egocentrism
b. whichever food they themselves preferred, in contrast to the predictions of Piaget's claims of egocentrism
c. broccoli, even if they themselves preferred crackers, as predicted by Piaget's claims of egocentrism
d. broccoli, even if they themselves preferred crackers, in contrast to the predictions of Piaget's claims of egocentrism **
85% correct; rpb = .37. Given Piaget's concept of egocentrism, we'd expect that the children would offer the adult what they, the children, preferred. But, contrary to Piaget, that's not what happened. Even these very young children seemed to have a theory of mind -- that is, an appreciation that what they want might differ from what someone else wants.
3. According to Lawrence Kohlberg, moral reasoning at the highest level relies on __________.
a. the ability to anticipate the opinions of others
b. personal moral principles **
c. a concern with punishment and reward
d. adherence to a code of "law and order"
85%, .42. Kohlberg offers a stage theory of the development of moral reasoning that is closely modeled on Piaget's stage theory of cognitive development in general. In the earliest, preconventional stages, moral reasoning is based on reward and punishment. In the conventional stages, the emphasis is on social conventions, such as the opinions of other people, or concrete rules. In the postconventional stages, moral reasoning is based on more-or-les abstract principles.
4. One question about attachment has to do with how it affects adjustment later in life. Which of the following has research revealed?
a. that securely attached infants are more likely, as teenagers, to have close friends **
b. that securely attached infants are less likely, in childhood and adolescence, to suffer from schizophrenia
c. that securely attached infants are more likely, when young adults, to be performers (e.g., singers, dancers, or actors)
d. that securely attached infants are more likely, when adults, to work in the "helping" professions (such as psychotherapy)
89%, .26. Attachment theory has to do with the child's relationship with its parents, but it turns out that these early relationships have implications for social development in later life, including adolescence and adulthood. So, a child who becomes securely attached to its parents -- a strong emotional bond, that can tolerate separation and the intrusion of other people -- is likely to grow up to be a teenager who can do the same things with others -- that is, someone who genuinely likes people, who can tolerate the fact that they have friends other than himself, and who can tolerate occasional separation from them.
5. There is a severe drought, and a ban on outdoor watering is in effect. The Dodges decide they will not wash their car because they realize that if everyone washed a car, the town might not have drinking water. Their reasoning places them in which of Kohlberg's stages?
d. postconventional **
63%, .33. Kohlberg's theory postulated three stages of moral development, each consisting of two substages, so to begin with there's no unconventional state. But here, the Dodges are clearly not behaving on the basis of reward and punishment (which isn't mentioned in the question), nor are they simply conforming to social norms or even municipal laws (which also aren't mentioned). Instead, they're reasoning in terms of more or less abstract principles, trying to figure out not just what is good for themselves, but what is good for the community as a whole.
6. During adolescence, neuronal myelination proceeds gradually in the __________ lobe, a brain region implicated in self-regulation.
d. frontal **
72%, .36. Brain development doesn't stop at birth. Not only do neural connections continue to proliferate, but certain other structural changes occur as well -- particularly in the prefrontal cortex, which is part of the frontal lobe of the brain and is critical for executive functions and various aspects of self-control, including emotional self-regulation. It's these changes in prefrontal cortex that lead some theorists to suggest that children and even adolescents should not be held responsible for misbehavior, on the grounds that the "teenage brain" hasn't yet developed its full capacity for self-control.
7. Adolescent emotional turbulence __________.
a. reflects a crisis between generativity and wisdom
b. is not inevitable **
c. may result from shifting roles between adolescence and adulthood
d. appears strongly supported by empirical research
23%, .28. Adolescent emotional turmoil seems to be characteristic of Western culture (as in the case of Rebel Without a Cause) , but classic anthropological studies, such as those by Margaret Mead, indicate that it's not universal. There are plenty of societies where kids make it through adolescence without a lot of sturm und drang. And, for that matter, adolescent emotional turmoil isn't inevitable even in Western cultures. It all depends on the temperament of the child, and of its parents, and things like parenting style.
8. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
a. Both crystallized and fluid intelligence remain relatively stable across the life span.
b. While crystallized intelligence remains relatively stable across the life span, fluid intelligence begins to decline in the twenties. **
c. While fluid intelligence remains relatively stable across the life span, crystallized intelligence begins to decline in the twenties.
d. Both crystallized and fluid intelligence begin to decline in the twenties.
94%, .29. In Cattell's theory, fluid intelligence is raw intellectual ability, and research shows pretty clearly that this begins to decline even in the 20s and 30s -- though this decline may not be noticeable except on carefully administered laboratory tests, and may not have too much affect on the person's day-to-day performance until the 50s or much later. But crystallized intelligence, which is largely a product of formal and informal education "book learning", doesn't decline -- and, in fact, can continue to grow through very late adulthood -- so long as the person continues to learn things.
9. The correlation for neuroticism between monozygotic twins is r = .48. From this we can conclude that:
a. genetic factors are important determinants of individual differences in neuroticism.
b. the shared environment plays an important role in determining individual differences in neuroticism.
c. the nonshared environment plays an important role in determining individual differences in neuroticism. **
d. none of the above, because we do not know the corresponding correlation for dizygotic twins.
60%, .18. Identical twins have 100% of their genes in common, but you can't determine the heritability of a trait unless you also know the correlation for dizygotic twins. But because identical twins have both 100% of their genes in common and were raised together in the same household (except in rare cases where the children were separated at birth), you can estimate the contribution of the nonshared environment knowing only the MZ correlation. To the extent that the MZ correlation differs from 1.00 (or a concordance rate of 100%), to that extent individual differences on the trait in question is shaped by the nonshared environment. In this case, 1.00 - .48 = .52, indicating that more than 50% of variance in neuroticism is attributable to the nonshared environment.
10. The shared environment is an important determinant of _____, while the nonshared environment is an important determinant of _____.
a. IQ; educational attainment
b. educational attainment; political attitudes. **
c. IQ; political attitudes.
d. extraversion; IQ
28%, .18, a bad item. When it comes to personality and social behavior, the nonshared environment is an important determinant of everything, including intelligence (IQ scores) and political attitudes, as well as personality traits such as The Big Five. But it's not a particularly important determinant of educational attainment. There may have once been a time where only the eldest child got to go to college, but these days most parents, to the extent that they are financially able, try to make sure that all their children get the same amount of education (at least in terms of formal years of schooling). So while there is a lot of between-family variance in educational attainment (in some families, the kids get to go to college, while in other families the kids may not even graduate from high school. There's a lot less within-family variance. Which means that the shared environment is a more important determinant of educational outcome than the nonshared environment.
11. When it comes to problematic adolescent behaviors such as smoking, drinking, sex, and pregnancy,
a. parental influences are mediated by the genes, while peer influences are mediated by the shared environment.
b. parental influences are mediated by the shared environment, while peer influences are mediated by the nonshared environment.
c. parental influences are mediated by the genes, while peer influences are mediated by the nonshared environment. **
d. both parental influences and peer influences are mediated by the shared environment.
24%, .20, a bad item. But again, the general principle here is that the nonshared environment is, in general, a more important determinant of individual differences in personality and social behavior than the shared environment, and that genes play a surprisingly large role as well. The similarity between adolescents and their peers is attributable to the nonshared environment by definition - -peer groups are a classic example of an environment that is not shared by siblings from the same family -- much less the parents!
12. On average, only children have slightly lower IQs than the first-borns of two-child families. This is because:
a. an only child increases the dilution of intellectual resources within a family.
b. only children mature more slowly than children with siblings, thus reducing the "growth effect" of the child on the family's intellectual resources.
c. only children do not get the benefit of the "teaching effect". **
d, only children do not experience the "last-child handicap".
83%, .32. In Zajonc's confluence model of intellectual development, each additional child after the first increases the dilution effect -- especially if they are closely spaced together, but that wouldn't affect only children. Rather, only children don't get the benefit of teaching their younger siblings -- because they don't have any. Only children also experience something like the last-child handicap -- precisely because they don't have any older siblings to teach them -- but this means that onlies do experience the last-child handicap, not that they don't. (With all this going on, it's remarkable that only children fare as well as they do, which is a tribute to the fact that they've got the full benefit of their parents' intellectual resources.)
13. In the earlier days of psychology, some success was achieved in identifying physical ailments that explained symptoms of mental disorders. However, early researchers needed to widen their focus to include psychological factors because of a lack of evidence linking physical factors with which of the following?
a. psychopathic personality
b. general paresis
d. hysteria **
46%, .49. Discovery of the syphilis spirochete indicated that at least some forms of dementia -- those associated with general paresis, and perhaps dementia praecox (now known as schizophrenia) as well -- were somatogenic in nature. But the whole point of hysteria is that the patient shows "neurological" symptoms (such as blindness, paralysis, and amnesia) in the absence of any evidence of brain damage. That fact gave theorists like Freud the idea that some forms of mental illness might be psychogenic in origin -- not caused by brain damage, but rather by some aspect of experience.
14. Andy has seen a psychologist for an evaluation, and the psychologist used the DSM-IV format to record his diagnoses and other information. Using the DSM-IV, what kind of information would have been coded on Axis II?
a. psychosocial stress
b. personality disorder **
c. overall level of functioning
d. medical conditions
63%, .40.DSM-IV classifies mental illness on a number of different "axes", each representing a clinically relevant piece of information. Of these, two are the most important. Axis I includes all the basic psychiatric syndromes, such as schizophrenia, affective disorder, anxiety disorder, conversion disorder, dissociative disorder, somatoform disorder, and the like. Axis II includes information about background personality features, and includes such "personality disorders" as antisocial personality disorder, adolescent conduct disorder, borderline personality disorder, and the like.
15. What is the main difference between generalized anxiety disorder and panic disorder?
a. Panic disorder involves specific objects or events, while generalized anxiety disorder does not.
b. Panic disorder is chronic, while generalized anxiety disorder is not.
c. Generalized anxiety disorder is brought on by stress, while panic disorder is not.
d. Panic disorder is intermittent, while generalized anxiety disorder is not. **
62%, .46. Generalized anxiety disorder differs from other anxiety disorders, such as phobic disorder and obsessive-compulsive disorder, in that GAD is general -- the patient isn't anxious or fearful about something in particular, but about things in general. Patients with GAD are perpetually in a state of high anxiety, but they can't identify the source of their anxiety. Panic disorder differs from GAD in that it is intermittent -- episodes of panic wash over the patient, and then go away. During a "panic attack", the patient feels very anxious, and not about anything in particular, but the distinction between panic disorder and GAD is temporal (panic attacks may also represent more intense feelings of anxiety). People who are subject to panic attacks may, in between episodes, be anxious about when the next panic attack might occur, but again that's anxiety over some specific thing. But during the panic attack, the feelings of anxiety aren't directed at any other object, such as heights, the dark, snakes, or spiders.
16. Researchers generally believe that problems with neurotransmitter activity are associated with depression, and several lines of evidence support this belief. At the same time, chemical models of depression are inadequate because __________.
a. antidepressant drugs work immediately to increase neurotransmission, but clinical effects generally do not become apparent for several weeks **
b. the chemical structure of the drugs is impossible to assay
c. the proper drug dosage is impossible to decide on
d. brain chemicals can only be measured postmortem
85%, .28. Biochemical models of depression support the use of antidepressant medications, such as SSRIs, and the effectiveness of antidepressant medications are often taken as support for those same biochemical models (which, if you think about it, is kind of circular reasoning). But the principal problem with these biochemical models is that the antidepressant drugs exert an almost immediate effect on the patient's brain chemistry -- but it takes a lot longer for the depressive symptoms to remit. So there's more to depression than brain chemistry.
17. The dopamine hypothesis is based on the idea that schizophrenia results from __________.
a. the production of an abnormal brain chemical called dopamine
b. the overactivity of brain circuits sensitive to the neurotransmitter dopamine **
c. an inability to produce enough of the neurotransmitter dopamine
d. the inhibition of brain activity caused by dopamine
84%, .40. In depression, the problem seems to be an undersupply of serotonin (and perhaps norepinephrine): that's the serotonin hypothesis of depression. But the dopamine hypothesis of schizophrenia goes the other way: according to the hypothesis, it's an oversupply of dopamine, leading to an overactivity of brain circuits that use dopamine (as opposed to other neurotransmitters, such as norepinephrine and serotonin) that's the problem -- which is why the effectiveness of certain antipsychotic drugs, which operate on the dopamine system, is taken as evidence favoring the dopamine hypothesis (though, if you think about it, that's circular reasoning too).
18. Alicia has an eating disorder and is of relatively normal weight. Marcia has an eating disorder and weighs 20 pounds less than her healthy weight. Which of the following is true?
a. Alicia and Marcia both have anorexia.
b. Alicia and Marcia both have bulimia.
c. Alicia has bulimia, and Marcia has anorexia. **
d. Alicia has anorexia, and Marcia has bulimia.
91%, .20. There are several different kinds of eating disorder, including anorexia, in which the patient doesn't eat enough to maintain optimal body weight, and bulimia, in which the patient eats normally, or even binges, and then purges in order to maintain usual body weight.
19. Dr. Zinn has both a PhD in clinical psychology and an MD, with a specialization in psychiatry, and has 35 years of experience in treating patients. Ms. Fielden has a master's degree in social work and has been treating patients for just 6 months. In attempting to decide which clinician to see to treat her anxiety problems, it would be useful for Erin to know that __________.
a. better outcomes are associated with clinicians who have both an MD and PhD.
b. better outcomes occur when the clinician has many years of experience
c. better outcomes occur when the clinician is fresh out of training
d. outcomes are not strongly associated with either the degree or length of experience of the clinician **
74%, .19. Psychiatrists (who are physicians with MDs) don't like to hear this, because it increases competition, but all the evidence indicates that psychologists (with PhDs or PsyDs but not MDs) are just as effective in psychotherapy. Then again, clinical social workers (who typically have an MSW but lack any kind of doctoral degree) are just as effective, on average, as either psychiatrists or psychologists, so they're threatened as well. Only physicians can prescribe medication, of course -- although some psychologists' groups are trying to get prescription privileges. But when it comes to psychotherapy, effectiveness is not so much a matter of training, or even of experience -- it's largely a matter of whether the therapist is guided by scientific evidence concerning what works, therapeutically, and what doesn't.
20. Gina has been experiencing transference during her psychoanalysis with Dr. Gavin. This means that she __________.
a. resists bringing unconscious feelings into consciousness
b. experiences an explosive release of repressed emotions
c. treats the therapist like she once treated a significant figure in her personal life. **
d. shifts formerly unconscious wishes and impulses into consciousness in order to deal with them
78%, .46. Transference is one of those psychoanalytic concepts that you need to understand in order to understand the influence that Freudian theory had on 20th-century culture. The general idea is that the patient transfers his or her unconscious sexual and aggressive motives, conflicts, and anxieties onto the psychoanalyst. By working these things out in therapy, the patient eventually becomes aware of them, and can cope with them consciously (and more effectively). But the transference occurs long before the patient's unconscious feelings become conscious.
21. In contrast with his psychodynamically oriented colleagues, Craig's work as a cognitive therapist deals primarily with teaching __________.
a. the client to recall traumatic events from childhood
b. the mind to react positively to stressful situations
c. mind and body relaxation techniques
d. the client to identify and change maladaptive patterns of thinking **
875, .37. Psychodynamic therapists tend to focus on early childhood experiences (e.g., trauma) and relationships (e.g., with parents), and encourage patients to gain insights into the early roots of current problems. Cognitive therapists, like behavioral therapists, tend to focus more on the "here and now", as opposed to "there and then"; and, as their label implies, they seek to change the maladaptive patterns of thought that are responsible for the person's current symptoms.
22. One way in which group therapy may be more effective than individual therapy is that __________.
a. the individual client gets much more personalized attention
b. the group provides on-the-spot practice in interpersonal skills **
c. group therapists typically use a client-centered approach
d. each patient learns that she is special and unique
91%, .30. Human beings are social animals, and the individual's experience, thought, and action occur in an expressly interpersonal context. The same goes for mental illness -- it's not just a personal matter, it's also an interpersonal matter. Group therapy brings the power of the group, and social influence, to bear on the individual patient, and it also gives him practice in dealing more effectively with other people -- practice that, in individual therapy, has to be relegated to the status of unsupervised "homework".
23. Which of the following statements regarding MAO inhibitors and tricyclic antidepressants is true?
a. Both increase the amounts of norepinephrine and serotonin available for synaptic transmission.
b. MAO inhibitors are prescribed less than tricyclics because MAO inhibitors require dietary restrictions.
c. These drugs are effective treatments for about 65% of depressed patients.
d. All of the above statements are true. **
83%, .22. In general biochemical theories of depression focus on the role of deficits in certain neurotransmitters, such as norepinephrine and serotonin. Both the MAO inhibitors and the tricyclic antidepressants increase the amount of these neurotransmitters available at the synapse -- the tricyclics by increasing the release of these substances, the MAO inhibitors by blocking the action of MAO-A, a substance which in turn inhibits the action of norepinephrine. All drugs have side effects, and the MAO inhibitors can only be taken in the context of a restricted diet -- which decreases their attractiveness to patients. Setting aside the issue of side effects, however, both classes of drugs work for a large majority of depressed patients.
24. Glenn has been taking a classical antipsychotic for schizophrenia. Because he wants to understand what effects the drug is having on him, he reads about how it is working in his brain. He finds that the antipsychotic medications are doing which of the following in his brain?
a. They increase its arousal level by increasing levels of dopamine.
b. They kill dopamine receptors.
c. They block dopamine receptors, thus decreasing neurotransmission. **
d. They keep dopamine active for longer periods of time in the synaptic cleft.
87%, .29. The antidepressant drugs increase levels of norepinephrine and serotonin available at the synapse. The antipsychotic drugs don't decrease levels of dopamine at the synapse, but they do block the effect of dopamine on the postsynaptic neuron. That's why the "lock and key" model of synaptic transmission is important. The antipsychotic drugs prevent the dopamine "key" from getting inside the postsynaptic "lock".
25. The term __________ refers to whether a treatment has been shown to work in carefully designed studies, whereas the term __________ refers to whether a treatment is likely to work in more typical clinical settings.
a. validity; reliability
b. efficacy; clinical utility **
c. effectiveness; internal validity
d. utility; efficacy
63%, .32. According to your textbook, "efficacy" has to do with the effectiveness of a treatment, as demonstrated through controlled clinical trials; "clinical utility" has to do with the extent to which the treatment works in the real world of actual clinical practice -- of what some authors call "effectiveness". I didn't lecture on these terms, but just for the record I don't think there's a difference between efficacy and effectiveness -- all that matters is whether a treatment works. And I'd define utility as having to do with the treatment's cost-benefit ratio. But I didn't write your textbook, and my differences with the authors wouldn't affect your answer to this question.
26. In contemporary China and the former Soviet Union, political dissidents were commonly confined to mental hospitals. This practice reflects the _____ criterion of deviance.
b. compliance **
36%, .12, a bad item. The frequency criterion applies a statistical standard for deviance: if something is statistically infrequent, it's deviant by definition. The compliance criterion refers to social norms -- including norms enforced by governmental authorities. The subjective criterion involves feelings of personal distress, and raises the distinction between ego-dystonic and ego-syntonic symptoms (a lot of you went for this option, but the subjective criterion refers to the patient's subjective feelings of distress). The harmfulness criterion focuses on maladaptiveness (and you don't want to categorize political dissent as maladaptive).
27. The medical model of psychopathology:
a. is based on the assumption that mental illnesses are somatogenic in nature.
b. is based on the assumption that only psychiatrists are competent to treat mental illness.
c. emphasizes the role of genetic, hormonal, and neurological causes of mental illness.
d. is based on an analogy between physical illness and mental illness. **
45%, .29. The medical model does not assume that mental illness has biological causes; and because this assumption is invalid, there's no reason why professionals other than psychiatrists can treat mental illness effectively. All the medical model does is elaborate on an analogy between physical and mental illness, assuming that both have natural causes that can be discovered by scientific investigation. Beginning with words like symptom and syndrome, the language of medicine pervades discussions of mental illness.
28. Phobic patients are most likely to be afraid of "natural" dangers such as snakes, spiders, darkness, heights, and open spaces. This suggests that _____ might act like a diathesis factor in the cause of some forms of mental illness.
a. preparedness **
c. autonomic reactivity
44%, .40. The fact is that phobic patients are more likely to be afraid of these natural dangers than of other potentially harmful objects and situations. And the best explanation of this fact lies in the concept of preparedness: that we are predisposed, by virtue of our evolutionary history, to quickly acquire long-lasting fears of objects and situations that posed a danger in the environment in which humans originally evolved.
29. Tranquilizers of various sorts are used in the pharmacological treatment of both _____ and _____.
a. schizophrenia and anxiety disorder **
b. manic-depressive illness and obsessive-compulsive disorder
c. affective disorder and anxiety disorder
d. anxiety disorder and bipolar disorder
49%, .07, a bad item. Many antipsychotic agents do little more than tranquilize schizophrenic patients, and make them a more manageable. The same is true for anxious patients -- who, apparently, need medicinal help to "calm down". The tranquilizers differ in potency, of course, and they also differ in terms of pharmaceutical class (i.e., pharmacological mechanism of action). But they're still all tranquilizers of various sorts. You wouldn't use tranquilizers with depressed patients, including bipolar patients in the depressed part of their cycle -- though you might use tranquilizers with bipolar patients in the manic phase of their cycle, drugs like lithium are much better - -and they're not tranquilizers.
30. As a general rule, _____ forms of psychotherapy are more effective than ______ forms.
a. psychodynamic; cognitive-behavioral
b. insight-oriented; group
c. cognitive-behavioral; insight-oriented **
d. humanistic; psychodynamic
70%, .33. The "Dodo Bird verdict" is right in the sense that insight-oriented/psychodynamic, cognitive-behavioral, and humanistic therapies "work" in the sense that the average patient who receives them has a better outcome than the average patient who does not. But that doesn't mean that they're equivalent. On average, cognitive-behavioral therapies are more effective than the other kinds. Also, cognitive-behavioral therapies seem to have more specific effects. And, finally, they tend to take less time, and so they're cheaper. Cognitive-behavioral therapies win hands down!
31. Inferential statistics _____, while descriptive statistics _____.
a. indicate how confident researchers can be in drawing conclusions from a sample; summarize the data but do not draw conclusions. **
b. summarize the data but do not draw conclusions; give measures of how confident the researchers can be in drawing conclusions based on a sample.
c. measure how confident researchers are in proving their hypothesis; determine the extent of confirmation bias in a study.
d. determine whether causation can be concluded from correlation; indicate whether the variance is greater than the standard deviation.
74%, .35. Descriptive statistics are measures of central tendency (mean, median, mode) and variance (standard deviation) that, well, describe a set of data. Inferential statistics permit the researcher to draw conclusions about the magnitude of a correlation, or the magnitude of the difference between means -- chiefly, whether the correlation or difference is greater than we'd expect by chance.
32. A critical difference between quasi-experimental investigations and experiments is that only _____.
a. true experiments examine real-world questions
b. quasi experimental and correlational investigations study real-world questions
c. true experiments involve some sort of manipulation **
d. correlational and quasi-experimental investigations do not conform to the normal distribution
73%, .33. Quasi-experiments look like experiments, in that they typically contrast two or more groups of subjects, but only in true experiments is the independent variable actually under experimental control, such that conditions are randomly assigned to subjects. For example, a comparison between males and females would be a quasi-experiment (you can't randomly assign subjects to gender!). But a comparison between those who got a short vs. long retention interval after studying a wordlist, assuming that subjects were randomly assigned to conditions, would be a true experiment. A lot of social-science research is quasi-experimental in nature, because the groups in question form naturally, not as a result of an experimenter's manipulation -- for example, sociological comparisons between religious groups or socioeconomic strata, or political science comparisons between liberals and conservatives. Technically, then, correlational studies are quasi-experimental in nature, because the variables in question aren't under direct experimental control.
33. What is meant by the phrase "informed consent"?
a. Subjects must be given as much information as possible about the experimental task prior to the onset of the experiment.
b. Subjects must be apprised of any risk prior to the onset of an experiment.
c. Subjects must be informed that they can terminate the experiment at any time.
d. All of the above. **
95%, .10. Subjects have to know what they're getting into before they volunteer for an experiment. In particular, they have to know whether there is any risk that might arise as a result of their participation. And even after they show up for the experiment, they must be able to withdraw their participation at any time.
34. The doctrine of mentalism states that:
a. mentalistic constructs like attitude and desire are unscientific, and should be discarded in favor of objective constructs like stimulus and response.
b. "parapsychological" phenomena such as telepathy and psychokinesis have been disproved by modern science.
c. the brain is the physical basis of mind.
d. the individual's actions are caused by beliefs, feelings, and desires. **
69%, .23.The philosophical doctrine of mentalism is also known as the doctrine of mental causation, and states that mental states (e.g., states of knowledge, feeling, or desire) cause action to occur. The doctrine of mentalism links the mind to action, at the individual level of analysis, and provides the framework for a psychological explanation of behavior in terms of the actor's mental states of knowledge, feeling, and desire.
35. Which of the following is likely to affect gene expression in humans?
b. Stimulation of cells.
c. Social interactions.
d. All of the above. **
50%, .08, a bad item. Remember the difference between genotype and phenotype. The genotype is like a blueprint, the phenotype is what actually gets built. Genotypes are expressed only in interaction with a particular environment. In biological terms, the environment may be thought of as the local biochemical environment of the gene. In psychological terms, the environment is the physical and social world outside the individual organism.
36. Niche construction refers to _____.
a. the process by which organisms make their nests.
b. the process by which organisms, through their behaviors, alter their environments **
c. the ability to make nests in any given environment.
d. the ability to behave consistently across different environments.
81%, .21. Evolutionary psychology is predicated on the idea that the environment shapes, and selects for, behaviors and modes of thought as well as body morphology. But the environment doesn't just shape the organism: the organism also shapes the environment through its behavior. Generally, niche construction refers to "instinctual" behaviors that, themselves, have been shaped by evolution; but there are lots of behaviors that are not instinctual in nature. An example of that might be nest construction, which changes the environment from one which didn't have a nest before to one which now does. But there's more to niche construction than nest-building. As pointed out in class, all "instrumental" or "operant" behavior alters the environment in which it takes place. For example, the pigeon who pecks a key to get a pellet of food changes the environment from one in which food was absent to one in which food is present. And there's nothing innate or instinctual about such behavior.
37. In many animals, courtship involves _____.
a. the female trying to persuade the male to accept her as a mate
b. the male trying to persuade the female to accept him as a mate. **
c. the female trying to show her physical fitness.
d. the male trying to display his beauty.
91%, .16. One of the things that surprised ethologists most, when they started actually looking at animal mating behavior in natural environments, was how choosy females are. They're not the passive receptacles for whatever male happens by. Males may be choosing their mates, but so are females, and a great deal of courtship behavior seems to reflect the males attempt to "convince" the female that he, or at least his genes, have good prospects.
38. If you wanted to prevent a synapse from working, you might __________.
a. activate the axon leading to its synaptic knobs
b. block the release of the synaptic vesicles into the synapse
c. prevent the synaptic knobs from contacting the receptor surface of the dendrite **
d. all of the above
12%, -.05, a really bad item, because -- due to a misfiring synapse of my own -- in fact there was no correct response. the important thing, though is to remember that there's actually a space between presynaptic and postsynaptic neurons, and that neural transmission occurs because neurotransmitter substances fill in this space. In fact, there are three processes in synaptic transmission: release of neurotransmitter by the presynaptic neuron; depolarization of the postsynaptic neuron; and re-uptake of neurotransmitter by the presynaptic neuron. Anything that prevents release, or prevents the neurotransmitter from being taken up by the dendrites of the postsynaptic neuron, or increases the postsynaptic neuron's threshold for depolarization, or hastens the reuptake of neurotransmitter by the presynaptic neuron, will prevent a synapse from working. But activating an axon is likely to lead to release of neurotransmitter, not inhibit it. And it's not synaptic vesicles that are released into the synapse -- it's neurotransmitter that's released by the synaptic vesicles.
39. The somatic system is to the autonomic system as __________ is to __________.
a. voluntary; involuntary **
b. arousal; restoration
c. muscles; hormones **
d. central; peripheral
76%, .07. The somatic nervous system connects the central nervous system to the sensory receptors and the muscles, tendons, and joints; the autonomic nervous system connects the central nervous system to the glands and other organs of the endocrine system, which secrete hormones. So Option C was intended to be the correct answer. But of course, the somatic nervous system is largely voluntary, and the autonomic nervous system operates mostly involuntarily, so that answer is correct as well.
40. James Brady was shot in the head in an assassination attempt on former President Reagan. During the years he lived following the shooting, Mr. Brady could see, hear, and speak fluently, but he had a persisting paralysis on the left side of his body and serious trouble planning complex voluntary actions. Which of the following brain diagrams best shows the probable damage to Mr. Brady's brain?
a. a. .
c. c **
51%, .11. The frontal lobe controls voluntary motor functions. And, by virtue of contralateral projection, the right frontal lobe controls voluntary movements on the left side of the body. Some of you asked which picture indicated the left cerebral cortex, but part of the point of the question is that you should have been able to figure that out, based on your knowledge of brain structure: the lateral fissue separates the frontal lobe, which is in the front of the brain, from the temporal lobe.
41. Activation of the sympathetic nervous system
a. prepares the organism for "flight or fight". **
b. is characterized by slow onset and rapid offset.
c. conserves and restores bodily resources.
d. acts discretely on various internal organs, as needed.
90%, .37. The sympathetic branch of the autonomic nervous system leads to emotional arousal, and prepares the organism for "flight or fight" (and to "tend and befriend"). The parasympathetic branch conserves and restores bodily resources (like blood sugar) that is depleted by sympathetic activation. sympathetic activation acts as a unit; parasympathetic activation acts discretely, where conservation or restoration is needed. Sympathetic activation turns on and off quickly in response to the appearance and disappearance of environmental stressors; parasympathetic activation turns on slowly, after some resource depletion has occurred, and turns off slowly as well, in order to finish the job of restoring lost resources.
42. Patient S, who could not experience negative emotions like fear and anger, suffered damage to the:
b. amygdala **
90%, .36. The amygdala plays a role in regulating negative emotions such as fear and anger (and maybe other emotions as well). The hippocampus plays a role in encoding new memories (think of Patient H.M.). The thalamus is a sensory relay station, and damage to it can render a patient comatose. the hypothalamus is involved in various aspects of homeostatic regulation, such as hunger and thirst.
43. Under which condition is a rat most likely to experience anxiety rather than fear?
a. when a CS precedes shock 100% of the time
b. when a CS is followed by shock on 50% of the trials but when there is no CS there is no shock
c. when the probability of shock following a CS is 40% and the probability of shock happening when there is no CS is also 40% **
d. when the probability of shock following a CS is 90% and the probability of shock occurring when there is no CS is 5%
67%, .20. In this circumstance, the CS is not a valid predictor of shock: the probability of getting shock after the CS is equal to the probability of getting the shock when there is no CS. If the CS predicted the shock, then the rat would come to fear the CS, as a predictor of shock. But in the absence of a reliable predictor, where aversive events are unpredictable, what the rat experiences is something like anxiety. If the shock is uncontrollable, a situation referred to as learned helplessness, the rat experiences something like depression.
44. During training, in classical conditioning, the US is presented __________, while in operant conditioning the reward is presented __________.
a. during every test trial; only on a variable interval schedule
b. immediately after the response; immediately before a response
c. regardless of behavior; contingent on behavior **
d. contingent on behavior; regardless of behavior
92%, .38. In classical conditioning, the US is presented contingent on the CS, but it's not contingent on the organism's behavior. In Pavlov's experiment, for example, food followed the bell no matter what the dog did. In fear conditioning, shock follows tone no matter what the animal does -- that's why fear conditioning can induce learned helplessness. But in instrumental conditioning, reward is contingent on the organism making some particular response. In Thorndike's experiment, the cat doesn't get out of the puzzle box unless it presses the paddle. In Skinner's experiments, the pigeon doesn't get a food pellet unless it pecks a key.
45. Seamus, a golden retriever, tries to get into the garbage but accidentally sets off an alarm the owners have put into the garbage can. Seamus is scared, and now avoids the garbage can. The other golden retriever, Lilly, observed this incident and also avoids the garbage can. Lilly appears to have learned to avoid the garbage can through __________.
a. insight learning
b. vicarious conditioning **
d. classical conditioning
61%, .40. This is an example of avoidance learning, which involves classical conditioning but also instrumental conditioning. The behavior in question is not being gradually shaped: Seamus learned in one trial to avoid the garbage can. Seamus had direct "personal" experience with the alarm, and he associated his behavior (trying to get into the garbage can) with this aversive consequence. But Lily didn't do anything: She just watched Seamus. This is a classic example of vicarious conditioning, where an organism acquires a conditioned response through observation, not direct experience of trial and error.
46. Instinctual behaviors and other products of evolution are insufficient to insure the survival of the individual organism because:
a. they occur even in the absence of physical stimuli.
b. they do not permit response to rapid environmental change. **
c. evolution can shape features of body morphology, but not features of mind and behavior.
d. organisms cannot learn through trial and error.
77%, .40. Instinctual behaviors occur in response to the physical presence of a stimulus, like the red spot on the adult herring gull's beak, which elicits begging from a chick, which results in feeding. In theory, these instinctual behaviors have been shaped over the long course of evolutionary time, to help a species adapt to its environment. But because evolution occurs over such very long intervals, by itself it can't mediate an individual organism's response to changing environmental circumstances. For that, we need some capacity for learning through trial and error and other processes (such as vicarious learning).
47. For 10 trials, rats are presented with a tone paired with shock. Then, for another 10 trials, the tone is presented simultaneously with a light, and both stimuli are followed by shock. Finally, the experimenter tests the rat's response to the tone and the light when these two stimuli are presented separately. The result of this experiment violates all but the _____ assumption of the traditional stimulus-response theory of learning.
a. association by contiguity
b. arbitrariness **
c. empty organism
d. passive organism
22%, .31. This is a scaled-down description of Kamin's famous "blocking" experiment. The shock surprises the rats, who then search the environment for a reliable predictor of this unpleasant event. They find it in the tone, and they pay attention to the tone, and ignore other irrelevant stimuli. So conditioning accrues to the tone. Later, the light is added to the tone, both preceding shock, but because the light is presented simultaneously with the tone, it provides no new information about the forthcoming shock. So the rat doesn't pay attention to it, and no conditioning accrues to the light. The result violates the assumption of association by contiguity, because it shows that learning is governed by the predictive relation between CS and US -- association by contingency. It violated the assumption of the empty organism, because we can't understand what the rat learns without taking into account what it expects. And it violates the assumption of the passive organism, because it shows that the rat is actively trying to predict the shock, and actively paying attention to reliable predictors. But it doesn't violate the arbitrariness assumption -- that assumption is violated by the results of experiments like Garcia's, which found that subjects could associate noise and shock but not taste and shock, and could associate taste and nausea but not noise and nausea.
48. Assume that an experiment has determined that, for monkeys, the Weber fraction for vision is 1/25, while that for audition is 1/5. What does this tell us?
a. The monkey can make finer visual discriminations than auditory discriminations. **
b. The monkey can make fine auditory discriminations than visual discriminations.
c. The monkey's visual acuity is 25 times better than a human's.
d. The monkey's auditory acuity is only 20% as good as a human's.
64%, .49. The Weber fraction, given by dI/I, is a universal measure of sensory acuity. It indicates the proportional amount that a stimulus must be increased to produce a "just-noticeable difference" in intensity. For vision, a stimulus must be increased by only 1/25, or 4%. For audition, the stimulus must be increased by 1/5, or 20%. So, for monkeys, vision is more sensitive than audition, because smaller changes are noticeable.
49. Which theory explains how we can discriminate among tones below 500 hertz?
a. Cochlear vibration theory.
b. Signal-detection theory.
c. Frequency theory. **
d. Place theory.
45%, .12. There are two basic mechanisms for pitch perception. In both cases, pitch is related to the frequency of the sound waves generated by the distal stimulus. These sound waves set up sympathetic vibrations in the basilar membrane, which stimulates hair cells in the cochlea, which generate neural impulses which travel over the auditory nerve to the primary auditory cortex in the temporal lobe. According to the place principle, the basilar membrane vibrates maximally at a different point for different frequencies of stimulation, thus stimulating different hair cells. That's fine, except that, at very low frequencies, the basilar membrane vibrates as a whole. So for very low pitches, especially below 500 Hz (cycles per second), pitch is coded in terms of a frequency principle.
50. What would you see if you stared at a picture of a red bird in a blue cage, and then looked at a blank field?
a. A green bird in a yellow cage. **
b. A blue bird in a green cage.
c. A yellow bird in a blue cage.
d. A yellow bird in a red cage.
90%, .34. Color, or hue, is related to the wavelength of light falling on the retina. Think of the opponent-process theory of color vision, which holds that color is produced by four elements organized into two opponent-process pairs: red-green and yellow-blue (there's a third pair, for black-white). Stimulation of one element inhibits the other element in each pair, until the stimulus disappears, a which time the previously inhibited element "bounces back", resulting in negative afterimages. Thus, red will be replaced by green, and blue will be replaced by yellow, until the afterimage fades.
51. The separation of figure and ground, like all aspects of parsing, is _____.
b. time-consuming and effortful.
c. performed by the perceiver. **
d. given by the stimulus itself.
87%, .32. Parsing is something the perceiver does, in the course of "going beyond the information given" in the proximal stimulus to construct an internal, perceptual representation of the distal stimulus. Parsing can be effortful, as in the "Gestalt" pictures shown in class (remember the Dalmatian dog?), but it can also occur automatically. But it's never arbitrary. The perceiver can't see just anything. The perceiver's constructive activity is, to some extent, constrained by the features of the stimulus.
52. According to the theory of unconscious inference, what calculation leads to size constancy?
a. Multiplication of the size of the retinal image by the distance of the object from the viewer **
b. Multiplication of the proximal stimulus by the retinal stimulus
c. Addition of the size of the retinal image and the size of the proximal stimulus times the distance of the object from the viewer
d. The distance of the distal stimulus, minus the size of the retinal image
73%, .41. You didn't have to know anything about multiplication, but you did have to know that, for Helmholtz, size constancy reflects the application of the size-distance rule -- that, holding size of the distal stimulus constant, the size of the retinal image varies with the distance of the object from the observer; and that, holding distance constant, the size of the retinal image varies with the size of the object. So, the perceiver automatically and unconsciously corrects for distance, with the result that the perceived size of the object remains constant, despite changes in the size of the retinal image.
53. In basketball, it is easier to see how far away the basket is if you use both eyes and move your head and body with respect to the basket. Using both eyes is a depth cue called __________ while moving your head with respect to the basket is a depth cue called __________.
a. binocular disparity; apparent movement
b. interposition; binocular disparity
c. texture gradients; apparent movement
d. binocular disparity; motion parallax **
69%, .27. Binocular cues to depth require both eyes; monocular cues require only a single eye. The standard monocular and binocular cues to depth work with a stationary observer, but there are two additional cues available to a perceiver that is in motion -- motion parallax, which comes from the movement of the observer between left and right, and optic flow, which comes from the movement of the observer forward and backward.
54. Gibson's ecological theory of perception states that:
a. we evolved various sensory systems to enable us to detect stimuli in our environment.
b. we are able to perceive the environment through a combination of innate and learned processes.
c. all the information needed for the perception of motion and distance is provided by the stimulus environment. **
d. the environment presents us with simple, lower-order stimuli that are combined by the brain into complex, higher-order percepts.
75%, .38. According to Gibson, all the information needed for perception (of form, distance, motion, or rigidity) is provided by the stimulus environment, which includes both the distal stimulus and its background. The focus on the stimulus environment gives the "ecological" theory its name. Gibson's view is also known as the theory of direct perception, because he believed that perception was not mediated by "higher" mental processes, such as Helmholtz's unconscious inferences. And it was known as the theory of direct realism, because he believed that the principles of ecological perception allowed us to see the world as it really is.
55. The constructivist view of perception states that:
a. perception is a form of algorithmic problem-solving.
b. we tend to see and hear whatever we expect to see and hear.
c. perceivers must "go beyond the information given" in the stimulus. **
d. perception is entirely a product of controlled , "top-down" processes.
72%, .40. This is the other view, which comes to us from Helmholtz, and also from Bruner. Helmholtz argued that the proximal stimulus is inadequate for perception -- that it didn't provide enough unambiguous information to permit us to perceive form, distance, motion, and the like. Therefore, information from the stimulus had to be supplemented by "unconscious inferences" contributed by the perceiver. To this Bruner added the idea that the perceiver's knowledge, beliefs, and expectations, not to mention emotional and motivational states, also played a role in perception -- by these means, the perceiver went "beyond the information given" by the stimulus to construct an internal mental representation of the world outside the mind.
56. A group of subjects hears a list of 15 words, after which there is a delay of 30 seconds before they are asked to recall the words. During this delay period, rehearsal is prevented. When asked for free recall of the words, which of the following will be affected the most?
a. recency effect **
b. primacy effect
c. memory span
d. long-term memory
71%, .23. This item was originally miskeyed: the correct answer is A, not B. This is about the serial-position effect, which is actually two effects: in the primacy effect, the first items on a wordlist tend to be remembered better than those in the middle of the list; and the recency effect, in which the last items on a wordlist are also remembered better than those in the middle. Slowing down the speed of presentation, giving more time for elaboration and organization, affects primacy but not recency, which indicates that the primacy effect reflects retrieval from long-term memory. The recency effect is abolished by giving the subject a distracting task to perform immediately after the list has been presented, with prevents maintenance as well as elaborative rehearsal, and indicates that the recency effect reflects retrieval from short-term or working memory. So, preventing rehearsal over the retention interval will affect short-term memory, and thus the recency effect.
57. Which of the following facts most directly supports the notion that the tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon is a failure of retrieval rather than of acquisition or storage?
a. It occurs when one is trying to recall not only unusual words, but also specific names.
b. An individual experiencing the phenomenon can recall material related to the word.
c. An individual experiencing the phenomenon can recognize the word he or she is trying to recall if it is presented in a list of alternatives. **
d. The tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon occurs fairly rarely, considering how often one tries to recall words from memory.
60%, .18. In the tip-of-the-tongue state, a subject cannot recall an item (for example, a word, or a name, or a trivia fact), but he "knows he knows it", usually states that he can recognize it when he hears it, and is usually right in this prediction. The fact that subjects in the TOT state can recognize items that they cannot recall shows clearly that the cause of their forgetting lies at the retrieval stage of memory processing, because it's obvious that the item is available in memory (which is why it can be recognized) -- it just can't be retrieved with the cues provided. Additional evidence that the problem is one of retrieval comes from the fact that subjects in the TOT state can often describe important features of the item that they're trying, unsuccessfully, to retrieve. So while the item itself is inaccessible, the subject has access to information about the item.It's true that individuals in the TOT state can sometimes recall information related to the forgotten item, but that's not evidence that TOT is a failure of retrieval. It might mean that the item was poorly encoded, or that some information had been lost from storage. Either process would result in a permanent failure of availability, not a temporary failure of accessibility. Tthe best evidence that the TOT state reflects a failure of retrieval is that the subject can recognize material that he couldn't recall.
58. Lesions of the hippocampus and related temporal lobe structures lead to an impairment in the ability to __________.
a. transfer information from perception to working memory
b. retrieve information from working memory
c. retrieve information from long-term memory
d. acquires new information **
45%, .26. Amnesic patients, like H.M., typically have suffered damage to the hippocampus and other structures in the medial (interior) portion of the temporal lobe. As a result, they are unable to encode new memory traces -- at least, they can't encode new memory traces that are accessible as explicit memories. This inability to encode new information into long-term memory means that they cannot acquire new information -- though they have little difficulty retrieving information from long-term memory concerning events that occurred before their brain damage. Amnesic patients like H.M. have short-term or working memories that are pretty much intact, which is why they can still solve puzzles (which H.M. loved to do), and carry on conversations. They just have difficulty transferring information from working memory to long-term memory.
59. Your knowledge that the Archduke Ferdinand was assassinated in Sarajevo in August 1914 is a piece of _____ knowledge.
b. semantic **
89%, .34. This is a fact, so it's part of declarative memory. But none of you were alive when this happened, so you didn't experience it personally. So while this statement refers to an episode that has a unique location in space and time, it's really a piece of semantic knowledge. It's a more-or-less abstract fact about history, and constitutes a part of your "mental dictionary" - -or, better yet, your "mental encyclopedia" of world-knowledge. Now, you may remember that you learned about the poor Archduke during your 10th-grade history class. That would be an episodic memory, because the fact in question concerns your personal experience. But this piece of historical knowledge, taken all by itself, is an item of semantic memory.
60. Your roommate sets you up on a movie date with his cousin, but he warns you that she's a little high-strung and nervous. The next day, when he asks you how things went, you tell him that there was a fire alarm in the theatre, and you were amazed at how calmly she reacted. This illustrates the _____ principle of memory:
c. encoding specificity
d. schematic processing **
59%, .30. This is about the schematic-processing principle, and the effect of background world-knowledge (semantic memory) on memory for specific events (episodic memory). We know that schema-congruent items (that is, events that would be consistent with, or predicted by, the schema) are remembered better than schema-irrelevant items (i.e., events that are just not associated with the schema at all), because the schema provides additional cue information at the time of retrieval. But schema-incongruent events (that is, events that are surprising or unexpected) are remembered even better than schema-congruent events, because the unexpected events demand explanation, and the explanatory activity makes for a deeper, more elaborate encoding. Your roommate's cousin was supposed to be nervous, but she acted calmly during the fire alarm. That's unexpected, that's schema-incongruent behavior.
61. In a lexical decision task in which subjects must judge whether or not a string of letters forms a word in English, subjects are first shown the string BANANA. According to research on spreading activation, which of the subsequent strings will take the least time to be judged to be a real word?
a. APPLE **
65%, .23. This is about activation spreading through a semantic network among items that are semantically related to each other. Bananas and apples are both fruits, so they will be connected with each other in the network, activation will flow between them rapidly, and perceiving banana will prime the processing of apple (and other fruit names). Bandana is spelled a little like banana, and may even sound the same, but semantic networks are built on the basis of semantic relations.
62. The validity of a syllogism is determined by __________.
a. the logical relationship between the premises and the conclusion **
b. the plausibility of the conclusion
c. whether or not the hypothesis tests well
d. Its consistency with our existing beliefs
75%, .31. Syllogisms draw logical conclusions from major and minor premises. If all men are mortal (major premise) and Socrates is a man (minor premise), then it follows logically that Socrates is mortal (conclusion). And it also follows that if Socrates is not mortal, then he's not a man either. But if Socrates is not a man, it doesn't follow that he's not mortal -- because beings other than men could be mortal. And if Socrates is mortal, it doesn't follow that he's a man, because mortal beings could be something else than men. It's all a matter of logic. Logic is an algorithm that, properly applied (i.e., to valid premises) is guaranteed to yield valid conclusions. By Aristotle's account, this is the only way to reason rationally. But it turns out that people don't always follow the rules of syllogistic reasoning, and our reasoning is affected by various heuristics and biases (like basing a conclusion on whether it is plausible, or consistent with our existing beliefs). But that's not the question.
63. What is the key to using an analogy in problem solving?
a. One must notice the surface similarity between a problem and a potential analogy.
b. One must be a novice in a field so that the analogy becomes readily apparent.
c. One must be able to hone in on a single potential analogy and not be distracted by previous problems that also might be similar to the present one.
d. One must notice the underlying structural similarity between a problem and a potential analogy. **
86%, .37. Analogies are based on similarity, and so the key to using an analogy in problem-solving is whether the similarity is superficial or deep. Problem X may "look" like an instance of Y, but unless it really is an instance of Y, treating X like Y isn't likely to get the problem solved. That's the problem with the representativeness heuristic, of which the use of analogy in problem-solving is a special case.
64. In order to assess whether intelligence is a unitary phenomenon or consists of multiple specialized components, a researcher using the psychometric approach would determine the __________.
a. reliability of a variety of intelligence tests
b. correlations among tests of specific abilities **
c. predictive validity of a variety of intelligence tests
d. heritability of tests of specific abilities
69%, .34. The debate over whether there's a single, unitary general intelligence, or g, or many different kinds of intelligence, turns in part on the correlations between various tests of intelligence. If the correlations among many different intelligence tests (verbal vs. nonverbal, linguistic vs. spatial, etc.) are all high, then -- to the extent that they're high -- you can infer that there's a single general factor, like Spearman's g, running through them. But if the correlations are relatively low, and especially if they're not statistically significant, then that's evidence that there are different kinds of intelligence that aren't united by a single underlying g. Gardner's theory of multiple intelligences discusses different kinds of evidence, such as cases of brain damage that impair one kind of intellectual functioning but spare others, but this kind of evidence isn't specified in the question.
65. Sandy has difficulty adjusting her behavior to new goals. Sandy is demonstrating __________, a problem reflecting damage to the __________ lobe.
a. goal neglect; frontal
b. goal neglect; parietal
c. perseveration; frontal **
d. perseveration; parietal
43%, .34. Executive control, behavioral flexibility, and intelligence in general seem to be mediated, in large part, by the frontal lobe, and especially the prefrontal cortex. And we know that damage to portions of the frontal lobe can lead to perseveration -- a difficult in switching mental sets.
66. The heritability ratio (H) of a given trait represents the __________.
a. amount of a trait for an individual that is due to genetic inheritance
b. proportion of the total population variance that is due to genetic differences **
c. variance within an individual produced by genetic differences
d. total variance for a population minus the variance produced by different environments
54%, .30. Heritability represents the proportion of population variance in a trait (intelligence, extraversion, liberalism, etc.) that is accounted for by genetic as opposed to environmental factors. It's estimated from the difference in correlations between monozygotic (identical) and dizygotic (fraternal) twins , but also by the correlations between parents and their biological offspring. Heritability is a population statistic, and says nothing about the determinants of the trait in any particular individual. But -- and here's the important part: genes don't determine traits in isolation, genotype always interacts with the environment to produce a phenotype. So the heritability of a trait can't be calculated once and for all. It can only be estimated for a population exposed to a particular environment. So, to take an example discussed in the textbook, the heritability of IQ for high-SES individuals is greater than that for low-SES individuals.
67. Why did the United States Supreme Court declare tomatoes to be vegetables, not fruits?
a. Tomatoes have all the defining features of vegetables.
b. The Court was unaware of the biological definitions of vegetable and fruit.
c. Tomatoes are "atypical" fruits. **
d. They categorized by enumeration instead of by attributes.
36%, .38. Because they ignored the scientific classification of vegetables and fruits, as proper sets united by singly necessary and jointly sufficient defining features, and based their decision on typicality -- whether tomatoes resembled, in their typical uses, vegetables more than fruits.
68. When is it rational to use judgment heuristics instead of algorithms?
a. When a problem is ill-defined. **
b. When the algorithm is known.
c. When there is sufficient time available to employ a "controlled" process.
d. When there is low tolerance for judgment error.
86%, .39. Algorithms are perfect for solving well-defined problems, where the starting-point, goal state, and intermediate operations are clear -- because, under those conditions, they're guaranteed to yield the correct answer. But they're useless for solving ill-defined problems, which lack at least one of these characteristics. And they're also not very useful under other conditions of uncertainty, where the algorithm isn't known, or all the necessary information isn't available, or the subject lacks time or motivation to apply the algorithm. Under these circumstances, it's rational to fall back on various judgment heuristics -- especially if we bear in mind the risk of error that their use entails.
69. Which of the following statements is an INCORRECT description of how we interpret sentences?
a. We interpret sentences rapidly.
b. We interpret each sentence we hear or read when we reach its ending. **
c. Interpreting sentences is primarily an unconscious process.
d. We develop an interpretation of a sentence in an ongoing fashion as we hear or read each successive word.
6%, .29. When you consider the speed with which speech comes out of our mouths, all those phonemes strung together into words, all those words strung together into phrases and sentences, it's amazing that we can understand it at all. We can do this because a great deal of speech-perception is automatized, and thus performed unconsciously. If we had to figure out consciously that C-A-T refers to a furball that purrs, we'd never understand anything that's said to us. But we don't. And we don't wait until the speech-stream has stopped to begin interpreting what the speaker is saying -- we start at the beginning, make predictions about what's coming next based on what we've already heard, and revise those predictions in light of what actually follows. That's why "garden path" sentences can be so hard to interpret.
70. Four-year-old Jimmy tells you he "runned fast but falled down." Jimmy is __________.
a. exhibiting overregularization errors **
b. omitting functional morphemes
c. communicating with a garden path sentence
d. demonstrating overgeneralization **
85%, .14. This is a classic example of the overregularization (or overgeneralization) error, in which a child learns a rule (like "add -ed to indicate past tense) and then inappropriately applies it to irregular verbs. And overregularization, in turn, indicates that children don't learn language by imitation, because they've never heard adults makes such an error. They learn by learning rules, and learning the exceptions to the rules. Unfortunately, "overgeneralization" sounds a lot like "overregularization", and it's pretty much the same concept, so we accepted Option D as well as Option A.
71. As compared to monolingual children, bilingual children display __________ comprehension of garden path sentences because __________.
a. better; they have greater cognitive flexibility **
b. better; they have a higher memory capacity
c. worse; they are subject to more interference in memory
d. worse; their syntactic sophistication is lower
87%, .25. Bilingual children haven't just acquired two different vocabularies (and the relations between them). They also acquired two different sets of grammatical rules, and the resulting cognitive flexibility makes it easier for them to interpret garden path and other complex sentences. This is only one reason why studying a foreign language is good for you!
72. A person reports being totally deaf, yet she gives vigorous startle responses to loud sounds. Of such occasions she reports, "I just felt I had to crouch quickly". These findings would be most similar to findings from studies on __________.
a. selective attention and the cocktail-party effect
b. people with blindsight **
c. the effects of mental set on the perception of ambiguous figures
d. people who have reasonably good generic memory but virtually no procedural memory
78%, .40. Usually, when we talk about sensation, perception, and memory, we mean to talk about conscious mental states -- sensations, percepts, and memories that we are consciously aware of. But it also turns out that there can be unconscious cognition -- that is, we can have "implicit" sensations, percepts, and memories that influence our experience, thought, and action outside of conscious awareness. Blindsight is a good example of this, and it turns out that there are examples of "deaf hearing" as well.
73. Which area of the brain seems to play a direct and central role in many aspects of thought and memory?
a. the hindbrain
b. the brain stem
c. the forebrain **
d. the midbrain
52%, .18. The hindbrain is another name for the brainstem. The midbrain consists of various subcortical structures, such as those that make up the limbic system. The forebrain is where the intelligent action is: the cerebral cortex, and especially the prefrontal cortex that is responsible for executive functions.
74. The difference between dreams experienced during REM sleep versus dreams experienced during slow-wave sleep is that __________.
a. REM sleep dreams are more vivid and pictorial **
b. slow-wave sleep dreams are pictorial but sparse in details
c. slow-wave sleep dreams are likely to be highly complex
d. REM sleep dreams are likely give only sparse details
87%, .21. People are most likely to report that they have been dreaming when awakened from rapid-eye-movement sleep. They may report dreaming when awakened from NREM (slow wave) sleep, as well, but by and large REM dreams are "dreamier" dreams -- more vivid, more complex, more detailed, more imagery, more of a plot. NREM "dreams" are more like static thoughts or images.
75. Let's say, hypothetically, that you inject the hypothalamus with a chemical making its cells insensitive to glucose. What would most likely result?
c. vigorous eating **
72%, .34. One of the functions of the hypothalamus is to mediate homeostatic regulation. In the case of hunger and eating, the hypothalamus (or, at least, part of it) keeps track of blood-glucose levels. If the hypothalamus is rendered insensitive to glucose, then it will "think" there isn't any, and initiate eating behavior to restore blood sugars to their optimal levels.
76. Dr. Chalmette injects estrogen into the hypothalamus of a spayed female cat and testosterone into the hypothalamus of a castrated male cat. What will Dr. Chalmette observe?
a. Neither cat's behavior will change.
b. The female cat will enter estrus, and the male cat will resume normal male sexual behavior. **
c. The female cat will enter estrus, but the male's behavior will not change.
d. The female's behavior will not change, but the male cat will resume normal sexual behavior.
58%, .19. Spaying and castration renders animals infertile by removing their ovaries or testes. This also deprives them of natural sex hormones secreted by these organs, which in turn leads to a decrease from normal levels of sexual behavior. But the exogenous (i.e., from the outside) delivery of these sex hormones will initiate normal sexual behavior -- until these drugs are metabolized and washed out of the nervous system. And this is true for both sexes.
77. In an experiment by Schachter and Singer, subjects were injected with a drug that, unknown to them, produced autonomic arousal. The study found that the emotion experienced by these subjects __________.
a. was always anxiety, regardless of the situation in which arousal occurred
b. depended on the situation at the time of arousal and could be positive, negative, or absent **
c. was nonexistent; subjects reported no experience of emotion solely as a result of autonomic arousal
d. tended to be positive or euphoric in the absence of specific cues suggesting any other emotional state
69%, .35. The famous Schachter-Singer experiment led to the formulation of various "cognitive appraisal" theories of emotion. In their version, subjects who experience physiological arousal look to the environment for information about the source of their arousal, and then interpret their arousal as an emotion -- happiness, sadness, anger, fear, etc. -- in light of this information.
78. Mark has made the fundamental attribution error in trying to explain why Julie was angry with him earlier in the day. This means that he __________.
a. overemphasized the fact that she was tired
b. ignored the fact that she is a kind-hearted person
c. assumed that her behavior was caused by the same factors that cause his anger
d. ignored the fact that she was tired because she had been up with a sick child and was feeling sick herself **
55%, .32. In the fundamental attribution error, people attribute other people's behavior to their internal traits and attitudes, and ignore situational constraints. So, it's entirely possible that Julie was feeling tired and sick, and that's why she was ornery. Making the FAE, Mark would ignore this information, which would lead him to discount her angry behavior and, perhaps, continue to describe her as kind-hearted, but instead might concluded that she was really an angry, hostile person after all.
79. People are most likely to seek social comparison when __________.
a. decisions are easy and obvious in order to confirm their choices
b. decisions are difficult and a situation is not fully understood **
c. a situation is well understood and social consensus is needed
d. they have sufficient time to gather information
90%, .29. People are most likely to engage in social comparison when the situation is unclear, or judgments are being made under conditions of uncertainty. In such circumstances, we look to other people as additional sources of information about what's going on, and how we should respond.
80. People often remain inactive in emergency situations because __________.
a. situations are often ambiguous
b. people look to other observers and see that they are calm
c. responsibility for action is diffused among all observers
d. all of the above **
89%, .24. This is about pluralistic ignorance. In ambiguous situations, people generally refrain from acting until it's clear what is going on, and what they should do. In order to gain additional information, they look to the responses of other people -- who, of course, are also refraining from acting until it's clear what's going on. Therefore, the fact that nobody's doing anything helps to define the situation as a nonemergency. In addition, there is a tendency for diffusion of responsibility: when there are many people around, there's a tendency for people to think that someone else is going to help.
81. The so-called personality paradox refers to what, exactly?
a. the idea that personality seems both innate and acquired
b. the idea that personality, though plain to see in anyone, is extremely difficult to measure
c. the idea that personality comprises both behavior and inner states
d. the idea that people behave less consistently than a trait-based conception would predict **
59%, .52. The paradox of personality is that we believe that social behavior is more coherent, stable, consistent, and predictable than it really is. Our impression, for example, is that people are highly predictable, but it turns out that our behavior varies much more across situations than we think it does. Thus Mischel's "personality coefficient", which indicates that there is a relatively low ceiling on the extent to which we can predict a person's behavior in some specific situation, given knowledge of his or her generalized personality characteristics.
82. Jessica, a 5-month-old infant, cannot make plans, solve problems, weight the moral implications of a decision, or consider how to realistically obtain food or put on warm clothes. In Freudian terms, Jessica is governed by __________.
a. the superego
b. the id **
c. the ego
84%, .36. Freud asserted that infantile behavior was dominated by the id, the seat of the instincts, and especially of infantile sexual and aggressive drives. In his theory, the id seeks immediate gratification, and does not distinguish between fantasy and reality. Thus, the hungry child sucks on whatever is available, regardless of whether it really satisfies his or her hunger. Only later does the ego kick in, which is Freud's term for the capacity to identify realistic objects for instinct-gratification -- such as sucking at the breast or the bottle instead of the thumb. And it takes even longer for the superego to develop, enabling the child to focus instinct-gratification on those objects that are deemed socially appropriate.
83. In comparing the views of contemporary social learning theorists with those of behaviorists and trait theorists, social learning theorists __________.
a. are much more interested in cognitive processes than are behaviorists or trait theorists
b. are like behaviorists in that they emphasize the role of situational factors in behavior
c. are unlike trait theorists in that they place greater emphasis on the role played by learning in shaping personality
d. all of the above **
74%, .25. Social learning theorists emphasize learning, and thus emphasize the fact that people make relatively fine discriminations among various situations. Both behaviorists and social-learning theorists differ from trait theorists in their emphasis on the importance of the situation in social behavior. But behaviorists tend to focus on the objective situation, while social learning theorists, being more cognitive in orientation, focus more attention on the perceived situation.
84. A psychologist measures anxiety in two different groups of people, in two different situations. Group 1 is high in conscientiousness and Group 2 is low in that trait. When scheduled for a morning appointment, members of Group 1 arrived on average 10 minutes early, while members of Group 2 arrived on average right on time. When scheduled for an afternoon appointment, members of Group 1 arrived on time, while members of Group 2 arrived an average of 8 minutes late. The experiment revealed _____ on arrival time:
a. an effect of personality, but not the situation.
b. an effect of the situation, but not of personality
c, an effect of both personality and the situation. **
d. an interaction between personality and situational variables. **
90%, .09. I love to ask questions like this, about the person-by-situation interaction. They all have the same format, but they differ in detail. You can estimate the effect of individual differences in personality by averaging behavior of the groups across situations. In this case, the average is -5 minutes for Group 1 and +4 minutes for Group 2. You can estimate the effect of the situation by averaging behavior in each situation across groups. In this case, the average is -5 minutes for the morning appointment, and +4 minutes for the afternoon appointment. Those are pretty substantial differences, indicating that there's an effect on arrival time of both the personality and the situation. A person-situation interaction would be indicated if the difference between groups varied substantially across the two situations, but it doesn't: the difference between groups is 8-10 minutes in either situation, and the difference between situations is 8-10 minutes regardless of the group. That's a relatively small difference, comparatively, but it's a difference, and it might prove to be significant after a formal statistical analysis. So even though the effects of personality and the situation are much bigger than the interaction, such that Option C is the best answer, we accepted D as well.
85. When asked about his political attitudes, Ralph said, "I've never thought about it, but I did vote for McCain and Palin in 2008, and for Whitman and Fiorina in 2010, so I guess I'm pretty conservative". This anecdote illustrates:
a. the effect of personality on behavior.
b. the effect of behavior on personality. **
c. the effect of the person on the situation.
d. the effect of the situation on personality.
82%, .34. This is about self-perception theory, which is an illustration of the reciprocal effect of behavior on the person. We define an attitude as a disposition to like or dislike certain objects, and we assume that people behave in accordance with their attitudes. If so, that would be an example of a personal disposition causing behavior (P==>B). But in this case, Ralph doesn't seem to have a generally liberal or conservative political attitude. Instead, he infers what his attitude must be, given what he remembers about his voting behavior. Instead of behavior produced by attitudes, behavior is feeding back to alter (or, in this case, create) attitudes (B==>P).
86. Carol loves music, but when her Fred took her to an all-Vivaldi concert she found the music unbearably repetitive. During intermission, she went on and on about how horrible Vivaldi's music was, and wanted to leave. But Fred told her that the remaining pieces on the program didn't all sound like the Four Seasons, and so she agreed to stay. He was wrong: the music still sounded like the Four Seasons, so Carol spent the rest of the evening thinking about the paper she was scheduled to give at a conference the next week. This anecdote illustrates the _____ mode of the person-situation interaction.
d. transformation **
44%, .41. This is about the mechanisms by which people affect the situations to which they respond. There's nothing about Carol that evokes a change in the situation. And, except for the fact that she chose to go out with Fred, she didn't do any selecting either. And she didn't leave the concert at intermission, which would have been a case of behavioral manipulation. Instead, she stuck it out, but spent the last half of the concert thinking about something else, which is a cognitive transformation.
87. The number of neural interconnections __________.
a. increases dramatically after birth **
b. decreases after age 2
c. is constant through infancy and childhood
d. decreases between birth and age 2
86%, .33. For all intents and purposes, you're born with all the neurons you're going to get, and you start losing them almost immediately. There may be some neurogenesis in the cerebral cortex, but that's not for sure, and in any event neurogenesis probably can't keep up with neuronal loss. What does increase after birth is the number of interconnections between neurons. There's also a pruning of interconnections, but the rate of increase far outpaces the rate of decrease.
88. According to Piaget, when a child is able to understand that adding 1 to 6 makes an odd number, but cannot grasp that 1 added to any even number makes it odd, the child is in the __________ stage.
c. concrete operational **
d. formal operational
79%, .35. During the sensorimotor period, according to Piaget, the child can deal only with what it can sense and manipulate. Later, during the pre-operational period, it has the ability to deal with internal mental representations of the external world -- as evidenced by object permanence. Concrete operations is analogous to arithmetic. The period of formal operations entails a capacity for abstract thought, analogous to algebra.
89. If a child can embrace the merely possible as well as the real, and if she can also entertain hypothetical possibilities, or what might be along with what is, then she is in Piaget's stage of __________.
a. preoperational thought
b. concrete operations
c. formal operations **
87%, .43. In Piaget's theory, the loss of egocentrism marks the transition between the preoperational period and the period of concrete operations. There isn't really such a marker for the transition from concrete to formal operations, but the ability to imagine things, and to think counterfactually, would be part and parcel of the general capacity for abstract thought that characterizes formal operations.
90. The most striking result of behavior-genetic studies of personality is that:
a. they reveal a genetic contribution to individual differences in personality.
b. the genetic contribution to personality is so weak.
c. genetic evidence also reveals an environmental contribution to personality. **
d. they show that personality differences among children of different families are much greater than personality differences among children of the same family.
46%, .22. The most interesting thing about behavior-genetic studies of personality isn't that they reveal that some aspects of personality are, to some extent, heritable. What's really interesting about behavior genetics is that the same method that reveals genetic influences can also reveal environmental influences -- including the influence of the nonshared environment. The nonshared environment is so powerful that, as a rule, within-family variance (among siblings) is about as great as between-family variance (among nonrelated individuals).
91. Richard, a tennis coach, is determined that at least one of his children should become a star on the tennis circuit. So, beginning when they were very young, he took them to play at the local public tennis courts, and when they came of school age he enrolled them in a tennis academy that emphasized sports over academics. One of the children became a world-class tennis player, while the other became a very good amateur. This story illustrates the role of _____ as a source of individual differences in personality and ability.
a. child-driven effects
b. relationship-driven effects
c. parent-driven effects **
d. family context effects
63%, .06. The initial interest in tennis doesn't come from the children, so it's not child-driven. And it's not the case that Richard spotted one of his kids swing a tennis racquet one day, and thought that he'd encourage the child's intrinsic interest, which would be an example of a relationship-driven effect. Nor is it the case that, for example, the oldest child got Dad's hand-me-down tennis gear, and the rest of the kids had to settle for golf and polo. No, the initiative for tennis was Dad's, and Dad's alone, and imposed on his kids, regardless of their attitudes and interests. To see what can happen under such circumstances, check out the autobiography of Andre Agassi, who became the world's best tennis player, hated pretty much every minute of it, and resolved that future tennis prodigies should have a more balanced childhood, adolescence, and education. Some students went for A, child-driven effects, but this process wasn't driven by the child. Richard had no idea what his children's talents or desires were. He decided that one of his kids was going to become a tennis star, and he enrolled them all in the tennis academy. The fact that one child became a star and another did not has nothing to do with how the process started. It was the parent driving this, not the children.
92. The distinction between psychogenic and somatogenic disorders __________.
a. will ultimately be a moot issue because all psychological events are based on neurophysiological processes
b. will remain with us until the discovery of the neurophysiological basis of learning and memory
c. is actually based on the differences between conditions with a known organic basis and those for which causes are as yet unknown
d. really amounts to saying that the most direct explanation of some disorders is at the psychological level, while for others it is at the organic level **
81%, .35.Soma is the Greek word for "body"; psyche is the Greek word for "soul" or "mind". The brain is the physical basis of mind, so in some sense all mental disorders are somatogenic in nature. But for some disorders, understanding how the brain works doesn't help us understand the cause or the treatment. For these syndromes, the cause has more to do with the experiences of the individual, and his or her thoughts, than with how the brain is working. We call these disorders "psychogenic" in nature.
93. The DSM-IV attempts to concisely describe the features that define a mental disorder. In doing so it makes references to distress, impairment, and the importance of considering whether an individual's behavior is expected within a particular culture. However, the DSM-IV __________.
a. makes no reference to normality **
b. excludes the possibility of cross-cultural variation
c. excludes organic disorders�those associated with brain damage
d. all of the above are correct
60%, .48. Psychiatrists are great at defining the various syndromes of mental illness, but they're not so good at defining mental normality, as a kind of baseline from which mental illness represents a deviation. There's nothing in psychiatry like "normal" body temperature or blood pressure. Accordingly, the "psychiatrists' Bible" provides no definition of "normal" mental functioning.
94. Which of the following is not one of the negative symptoms of schizophrenia?
a. emotional blunting
b. hallucinations **
c. poverty of speech
59%, .47. Positive symptoms are features that schizophrenics (and other mental patients) display that "normal" individuals do not, like hallucinations and delusions. Negative symptoms are features that "normal" people have but schizophrenics lack, like appropriate emotional responses and levels of motivation and interest, and the ability to communicate effectively via speech.
95. In systematic desensitization, fear-producing stimuli are associated with __________.
a. learned helplessness
b. increased motor activity
c. muscular relaxation **
d. aggressive responses
64%, .49. In systematic desensitization, the patient is instructed to remain calm in the presence of the phobic stimulus. This means increased muscular relaxation, as well as decreased activity in the sympathetic branch of the autonomic nervous system. After all, the whole point of treatment for phobia is to diminish the "flight or fight" response to stressful stimuli.
96. One advantage of electroconvulsive treatment that makes it the treatment of choice in some cases is that it __________.
a. has no adverse side effects
b. is very fast acting **
c. alleviates both schizophrenic and depressive symptoms
d. rarely requires more than one or two administrations
82%, .34. ECT is a little unsavory, but it works, and it works quickly -- faster than antidepressant medication, and faster than psychotherapy. For that reason, it is often the treatment of choice in cases of acute depression -- producing an immediate effect that can be maintained by drugs and therapy.
97. Debbie wonders whether she should bother seeing a psychologist for her long-standing depression, as she has heard from two friends that they did not feel better after seeing a psychologist. To help inform her decision, her neighbor has just read a meta-analysis by Smith et al. (1980) in which their review of 475 studies revealed that the average person who receives therapy is better off at the end of it than about __________% of persons who do not receive therapy.
d. 75 **
84%, .43. The Smith et al. meta-analysis, and in pretty much every study done since then, shows clearly that the average patient who undergoes psychotherapy has a better outcome than the average patient who does not. Whether the exact figure is 65%, o5 75%, or 80%, that consistent outcome rules out Options A, B, and C.
98. A historical trend in psychiatric diagnosis has been toward:
a. reducing the focus on manifest symptoms, and emphasizing instead latent syndromes.
b. loosening the criteria for various syndromes, allowing for greater heterogeneity within diagnostic categories. **
c. lessening the role of subjective judgment by establishing defining features associated with each diagnosis.
d. shifting from diagnostic categories based on psychogenic theories to new categories based on somatogenic theories.
40%, .32. In the 19th and early 20th centuries, the diagnostic categories were construed as proper sets -- as in Bleuler's definition of schizophrenia, in which each schizophrenic patient was held to display the "4 As" of loose associations, anhedonia, ambivalence, and autism. But now we don't think of these diagnoses as proper sets, we think of them as fuzzy sets, represented by a category prototype that has many symptoms characteristic of schizophrenia (for example), and few symptoms characteristic of other forms of mental illness. The next move, if rumors are correct, is that DSM-V will shift from a categorical system to a dimensional system -- but we're not there yet, and it's only a rumor.
99. Comparing pharmacological and psychotherapeutic treatments for mental illness, the available evidence indicates that:
a. psychotherapy might be the best treatment in the acute stage of illness, but pharmacotherapy is best for chronic stages.
b. paradoxically, psychotherapy works best for illnesses with clear genetic-biochemical origins, because somatogenic syndromes are presently incurable.
c. the combination of drug treatment and psychotherapy seems to offer the best chance for long-term positive outcome. **
d. neither drug treatments nor psychotherapy work much better than placebos.
92%, .33. Drugs work more slowly that ECT (for depression), but they still work faster than psychotherapy. But drugs don't work after they're discontinued, while psychotherapy, as essentially a learning experience, can last forever -- or, at least, for a very long time. That's why, even if we have some drugs that alleviate symptoms, patients need some form of psychotherapy to achieve long-lasting positive outcomes.
100. According to Socrates, "the unexamined life is not worth _____".
a. the candle
b. a plugged nickel
c. a Continental
d. living **
97%, .08. I could have asked about the Delphic injunction to "Know thyself". Or I could have asked about Descartes' definition of a human as "a being that thinks". Maybe next time. This time, I asked about Socrates. And, as a possible response option, I suppose that I could have included the famous quote from John Nance Garner, 32nd Vice-President of the United States, but I can't repeat what he said in polite company. Many of you probably remembered the phrase "not worth a Continental" from the Revolutionary War, when a Continental was a banknote printed to finance the war of independence from England -- so many of which were printed that the new government couldn't cover them (sound familiar?).
Retain this exam, along with a record of your answers.
A provisional answer key will be posted to the course website by 3:00 PM today.
The exam will be provisionally scored to identify and eliminate bad items.
The exam will then be rescored with bad items keyed correct for all responses.
Grades will be posted to the course website.
A final, revised, answer key, and analyses of the exam items,
will be posted on the course website when grades are posted.
Requests for rescoring must be received within
one (1) week of the posting of grades